How many deny Jesus Christ in the Eucharist?

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Thanks, I know of such alleged miracles and note:

a) that “miracle” doesn’t match the claim. The claim is very specific in that the whole Christ is supposed to be truly, really and substantially present, yet the alleged miracle has (in the ones I have looked at) only a bit of his heart present. Further, the explanation that I have been given as to how Christ can be present “whole and entire” in heaven and in thousands and thousands of bits at once is b/c of the nature of his presence in the bits. I note however, that his molecular presence in the bit from the Eucharistic miracle is not at all like his alleged presence in the Eucharistic elements…so how does that work? Is the heart of Christ in heaven whole?..or are a few bits missing?; and

b) the integrity of the evidence is dreadful…ie tracing the tested piece back to the element that was originally consecrated.
WOW…Do you realize what you just said “only a bit of his heart is present”. That IS the miracle of the Catholic Faith. Yes, the Sacred Heart of Jesus is truly present at every Mass offered every day all around the world!!! This is a matter of Faith for Catholics…just like the Trinity, the Divinity of Christ, and the Ressurrection!

God’s Peace
 
Radical,

I appreciate your views but certainly don’t agree with them! It seems as though your mind is made up and you are happy and content (because it seems that you want the church that meets YOUR needs…not the ONE the Jesus established).
The bit in the brackets seems rather insulting. We all believe what we understand to be the best view. Should I therefore assume that “your needs” require you to follow a hierarchy that tells you what to believe and so you follow that hierarchy and not the CHURCH Jesus established? We both believe that we are following Christ’s teaching and that the other is misguided on certain points, but your assertion about “my needs” could be presented with more grace.
I am guessing that as a Christian you believe in the Trinity, the Incarnation, and the Ressurection…none of which can be explained in terms that most of us can comprehend. So we take them on Faith…just seems odd that if what I just suggested is true, why one can’t believe in the primacy of Peter, or Marian doctrine!
Tell you what, let’s narrow this a bit. You show me the source documents that expressly establish that the Marion doctrines all existed from the outset and I’ll show you the same for the resurrection. When you realize you can’t trace the Marion doctrines back that far (and that you must assume they were present back then and/or rely on inferences drawn on questionable interpretations of scritpure) then we can note that you aren’t exactly comparing apples to apples.
One final thought…do you realize that you have Catholics in your heritage–virtually everyone was a Catholic prior to the Reformation.
You have heard of the Orthodox, right? …and how would you respond to a Jewish person suggesting ythat you should join him b/c, after all, all of Christianity has its roots in Judaism?
Do you ever wonder if those that led the Reformation would be happy with what has happened to the Church today.
those like Menno Simons would think almost anything could constitute an improvement
The Catholic Church has certainly had its’ share of sinners (and still does today)…but it is teaching the same things that were taught by the Apostles 2000 years ago. It is the ONE that we refer to in the Nicene Creed!
God’s Peace
It might be the one you and yours refer to when reciting the creed…but not the rest of us.
 
WOW…Do you realize what you just said “only a bit of his heart is present”.
yes, one can consider the alleged reality and/or the hypothetical…do you even see how the alleged miracle is at odds with the CC’s claim of full presence in each and every bit?
 
Tell you what, why don’t you google “Petrine Supremacy” and then get back to me on that one.

In the mean time, I’ll try to find the time to respond to your post quoting Kelly et al.
I’ll tell you what,how about going off the ancient sources (1st,2nd,3rd,4th, etc,etc centuries) and not a second hand source called Google. Get back to me on that one. 👍
 
hawkeye

Actually, I participated in a communion service in the Holy Land (Jerusalem), and we were told that we were following the tradition at the time of Jesus. We all sat at a very low table - not really sat - and shared the bread and cup by passing them along. We were told that in those days meals were shared in that way, with no concern about germs and such, since theyr did not know about germs???
Do you think the Apostles were already eating before Jesus broke the bread ?

Mark 14:22 And whilst they were eating, Jesus took bread; and blessing, broke, and gave to them, and said: Take ye. This is my body.

New Living Translation (©2007)
As they were eating, Jesus took some bread and blessed it. Then he broke it in pieces and gave it to the disciples, saying, “Take this and eat it, for this is my body.”
English Standard Version (©2001)
Now as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and after blessing it broke it and gave it to the disciples, and said, “Take, eat; this is my body.”
New American Standard Bible (©1995)
While they were eating, Jesus took some bread, and after a blessing, He broke it and gave it to the disciples, and said, “Take, eat; this is My body.”
International Standard Version (©2008)
While they were eating, Jesus took a loaf of bread and blessed it. Then he broke it in pieces and handed it to the disciples, saying, “Take this and eat it. This is my body.”
GOD’S WORD® Translation (©1995)
While they were eating, Jesus took bread and blessed it. He broke the bread, gave it to his disciples, and said, “Take this, and eat it. This is my body.” King James Bible

More

And if they were eating before, why would Jesus bother to distinguish the food they already ate, from the food and wine He Blessed ?

Does bread and wine constitute a meal, a dinner, a supper ?
 
I’ll tell you what,how about going off the ancient sources (1st,2nd,3rd,4th, etc,etc centuries) and not a second hand source called Google. Get back to me on that one. 👍
You know, it never would have occured to me that one should check 1st, 2nd, 3rd or 4th century sources to see how the 21st century church (led by the bishop of Rome) would distinguish between Petrine Primacy and Petrine Supremacy and embrace the former w/o accepting the latter…I wouldn’t know where to start. Perhaps you would be so kind as to lead the way?
 
You know, it never would have occured to me that one should check 1st, 2nd, 3rd or 4th century sources to see how the 21st century church (led by the bishop of Rome) would distinguish between Petrine Primacy and Petrine Supremacy and embrace the former w/o accepting the latter…I wouldn’t know where to start. Perhaps you would be so kind as to lead the way?
You mentioned it and apparently believe it. Tell me where the Bishop of Rome claims superiority over other bishops? Enlighten me. Give me one primary source from any Roman bishop claiming to have superiority over other bishops?

And are you so prone to believe a second hand source without checking an actual primacy source? It is okay…that is the typical Protestant blunder. Go off a second hand source,minus a primary source. That is one of the most basic fundamentals any historian is taught as a freshman. Always check the primary source.
 
A couple points
Code:
 I must confess that I admire "Cafeteria Catholics", those who think, study, ponder and then decide what parts of traditional Catholicism they will embrace. Somehow I have never thought that remaining true to all the traditions that go back hundreds and hundreds of years is altogether and always admirable and a good thing. The world has changed enormously, and our understanding and perceptions are very different. What was easy for the faithful to believe then seems a bit far fetched today.  

 If Christian unity is ever achieved it will be in large part because traditionalist Catholics and fundamentalist Protestants and the hyper-Orthodox of the eastern church come to realize that this world is full of mystery and that no church has a monopoly when it comes to understanding it. They may continue to believe what they now believe, but they will have new respect for other Christians and their beliefs and/or doubts. The bitterness that some seem to feel will be replaced by a geneuine sense of Christian harmony and mutual appreciation.

 We need a 'big tent' faith that respects different interpretations of scripture. Some will continue to be loyal to the Holy See - and that is fine - but Christians need the freedom to 'think and let think' without having to endure sharp condemnation. 

 As for Christ in the Eucharist, some of those early mystery religions were big on consuming the flesh and blood of their god or gods in one way or another. This - some would argue - is a relic from the days when human sacrifice was thought to be required to appease the wrath of God. Now think a minute. Is there something just a bit bizarre about God killing his only son so that our sins can be forgiven? Moreover, while Jesus, of course, underwent enormous torment, he knew that shortly he would again reign forever and ever, King of kings and Lord of lords. Millions of people have gone through intense and prolonged suffering and death without that expectation of an eternal throne. I personally see Jesus on the cross as representative of all the innocent people who have been tortured and/or slaughtered by wars, persecutions, natural disasters, horrendous diseases, slavery, and other cruelties. That's how I personally view Christ in the Eucharist.  

 God bless all people of faith, and may religion become a bridge and not a barrier.
 
You mentioned it and apparently believe it. Tell me where the Bishop of Rome claims superiority over other bishops? Enlighten me. Give me one primary source from any Roman bishop claiming to have superiority over other bishops?

And are you so prone to believe a second hand source without checking an actual primacy source? It is okay…that is the typical Protestant blunder. Go off a second hand source,minus a primary source. That is one of the most basic fundamentals any historian is taught as a freshman. Always check the primary source.
From the CCC:

882…“For the Roman Pontiff, by reason of his office as Vicar of Christ, and as pastor of the entire Church has full, supreme, and universal power over the whole Church, a power which he can always exercise unhindered.”

937 The Pope enjoys, by divine institution, “supreme, full, immediate, and universal power in the care of souls”

(emphasis added by Radical)

You do realize that supreme power would entail supremacy? …yah shoulda googled.
 
As for Christ in the Eucharist, some of those early mystery religions were big on consuming the flesh and blood of their god or gods in one way or another. This - some would argue - is a relic from the days when human sacrifice was thought to be required to appease the wrath of God.
Um…so you don’t accept the biblical accounts of the Lord’s Supper then?
 
The bit in the brackets seems rather insulting. We all believe what we understand to be the best view. Should I therefore assume that “your needs” require you to follow a hierarchy that tells you what to believe and so you follow that hierarchy and not the CHURCH Jesus established? We both believe that we are following Christ’s teaching and that the other is misguided on certain points, but your assertion about “my needs” could be presented with more grace.

Tell you what, let’s narrow this a bit. You show me the source documents that expressly establish that the Marion doctrines all existed from the outset and I’ll show you the same for the resurrection. When you realize you can’t trace the Marion doctrines back that far (and that you must assume they were present back then and/or rely on inferences drawn on questionable interpretations of scritpure) then we can note that you aren’t exactly comparing apples to apples.

You have heard of the Orthodox, right? …and how would you respond to a Jewish person suggesting ythat you should join him b/c, after all, all of Christianity has its roots in Judaism?

those like Menno Simons would think almost anything could constitute an improvement

It might be the one you and yours refer to when reciting the creed…but not the rest of us.
No insult intended.
 
yes, one can consider the alleged reality and/or the hypothetical…do you even see how the alleged miracle is at odds with the CC’s claim of full presence in each and every bit?
Maybe this quote from the Catechism might help.

1374
The mode of Christ’s presence under the Eucharistic species is unique. It raises the Eucharist above all the sacraments as "the perfection of the spiritual life and the end to which all the sacraments tend."201 In the most blessed sacrament of the Eucharist "the body and blood, together with the soul and divinity, of our Lord Jesus Christ and, therefore, the whole Christ is truly, really, and substantially contained."202 "This presence is called ‘real’—by which is not intended to exclude the other types of presence as if they could not be ‘real’ too, but because it is presence in the fullest sense: that is to say, it is a substantial presence by which Christ, God and man, makes himself wholly and entirely present."203

I see this as a matter of Faith!

God’s Peace
 
From the CCC:

882…“For the Roman Pontiff, by reason of his office as Vicar of Christ, and as pastor of the entire Church has full, supreme, and universal power over the whole Church, a power which he can always exercise unhindered.”

937 The Pope enjoys, by divine institution, “supreme, full, immediate, and universal power in the care of souls”

(emphasis added by Radical)

You do realize that supreme power would entail supremacy? …yah shoulda googled.
937 The Pope enjoys, by divine institution, “supreme, full, immediate, and universal power in the care of souls”

Nice try.

And what souls might that be? Hhmmmmm? Okay,where do you come up with the notion this SUPERIORITY is specifically in reference to other bishops?

And look at what 936 states:

The Lord made St. Peter the visible foundation of his Church. He entrusted the keys of the Church to him. The bishop of the Church of Rome, successor to St. Peter, is “head of the college of bishops, the Vicar of Christ and Pastor of the universal Church on earth”

Meaning what? The pope works in communion with the bishops,not ALONE.

So Bishop of Rome is some sort of king? So the Bishop of Rome ALONE has supremacy? Funny how 893 states the following:

The bishop (ALL bishops…my emphasis added) is “the steward of the grace of the **supreme **priesthood,” especially in the Eucharist which he offers personally or whose offering he assures through the priests, his co-workers. The Eucharist is the center of the life of the particular Church. The bishop and priests sanctify the Church by their prayer and work, by their ministry of the word and of the sacraments. They sanctify her by their example, “not as domineering over those in your charge but being examples to the flock.” Thus, “together with the flock entrusted to them, they may attain to eternal life”

You should read things in their proper context and their entirety before making any bogus conclusions.
 
937 The Pope enjoys, by divine institution, “supreme, full, immediate, and universal power in the care of souls”

Nice try.

And what souls might that be? Hhmmmmm? Okay,where do you come up with the notion this SUPERIORITY is specifically in reference to other bishops?
Where did I say “specifically in reference to other bishops”?

According to 882 the Pope has supreme power over the entire church, and that would include all Catholic bishops and any college of Catholic bishops, right?

This isn’t rocket science…riddle me this, if supremacy isn’t claimed for the Pope, why does the CCC use the word “supreme” to describe his power? And if that “supreme” power isn’t unique to his office, then what other bishop is said to possess supreme power?
And look at what 936 states:
The Lord made St. Peter the visible foundation of his Church. He entrusted the keys of the Church to him. The bishop of the Church of Rome, successor to St. Peter, is “head of the college of bishops, the Vicar of Christ and Pastor of the universal Church on earth”
Meaning what? The pope works in communion with the bishops,not ALONE.
where did I say that the Pope worked alone?..I said that the CC claims supremacy for him…your quote attributes titles of “Vicar of Christ” and “head”…if those titles don’t denote a form of supremacy, then what other bishop is said to possess such titles?
So Bishop of Rome is some sort of king? So the Bishop of Rome ALONE has supremacy? Funny how 893 states the following:
The bishop (ALL bishops…my emphasis added) is “the steward of the grace of the **supreme **priesthood,”
…and it would seem that in addition to claiming supremacy for its Pope, the CC claims supremacy for its priesthood…no surprise there. The Pope is said to have supreme power over the entire church, including the supreme priesthood.
You should read things in their proper context and their entirety before making any bogus conclusions.
Please, you are only going further off topic and (I have got to think that you must have an inkling that) you are only embarassing yourself. If you really want to pursue this, start a thread in the Apologetics Forum, declare that the Pope doesn’t possess supremacy and see how you do with your fellow Catholics.
 
I would suggest that the burden of proof lies with those claiming that a real bodily presence exists where no physical presence exists

Nope! That is merely a cop-out by those who deny it. The burden of proof is on those to support such a novel belief from the early church. History is not on your side and to state otherwise is a mere fallacy.
What fallacy would that be?..perhaps the fallacy of understanding history in a fashion that isn’t dictated by the requirements of the hierarchy of the CC? One man’s fallacy is another man’s good sense.
Even early church councils confirm it.
In reality, those early church councils weren’t all that early, now were they?
Renowned Protestant historian of the early Church J. N. D. Kelly, writes: “Eucharistic teaching, it should be understood at the outset, was in general unquestioningly realist, i.e., the consecrated bread and wine were taken to be, and were treated and designated as, the Savior’s body and blood” (Early Christian Doctrines, 440).
Protestant? Would that be a Protestant from a communion which holds to a RP?..and if so, then what would be his bias? In any event, I’ll see your Kelly and raise you a Pelikan and a Van der Meer. Pelikan, in his first volume of The Christian Tradition writes:

Yet it does seem ‘express and clear’ that no orthodox father of the second or third century of whom we have record declared the presence of the body and blood of Christ in the Eucharist to be no more than symbolic (although Clement and Origen came close to doing so) or specified a process of substantial change by which the presence was effected (although Ignatius and Justin came close to doing so). Within the limits of those excluded extremes was the doctrine of the real presence .

So here we have a very respected and established scholar who understood that early Eucharistic views were very diverse with one extreme being close to a purely symbolic view. What does one need to believe in order to hold to something which is just less than a purely symbolic view? Is it that the bread is viewed as a symbol, but that it is understood that the symbol and the act possess the power to unify the participants in the body of Christ (aka the church)?

F. van der Meer, in his renowned study Augustine the Bishop, writes:

It is perfectly true, however, that there is nowhere any indication of any awareness of the Real Presence of Christ in the Sacrament, or that he thought very much about this subject or made it the object of devotion; that was alien to the people of that age – at any rate in the West.

If Pelikan and van der Meer are correct, then it would seem that Africa (from Alexandria to Carthage), to a large degree, wasn’t on board with this real bodily presence stuff that you want to project back onto the early Church. Now if a RP mass was always the centre piece of Christian worship form Christ onwards, it is rather odd that the earliest ECFs weren’t all on board. As we learn more and more about the earliest church it becomes clearer that a considerable variety existed amongst the orthodox wrt things such as the Eucharist. That variety is consistent with the RP view as being a product of the imagination of the pious.
Here a few sources:

Ignatius of Antioch
Yep, seen this stuff before….and dealt with the Ignatius quotes and Augustine quotes on other threads…if anyone is interested where, ask and I will provide a link.
 
**What fallacy would that be?..perhaps the fallacy of understanding history in a fashion that isn’t dictated by the requirements of the hierarchy of the CC? One man’s fallacy is another man’s good sense. **

Oh of course! I forgot! It took over 1500 years with the advent of thousands upon thousands of man-made churches better known as Protestanism to truly discover Christianity and rectify early church history. Have anything new?

Quote:
Even early church councils confirm it.

**In reality, those early church councils weren’t all that early, now were they? **

U-huh…and would you use your own argument agaisn the doctrines of the Trinity and Incarnation hammered out in the 4th century? How about the canon? None weren’t all that early,now were they?

Quote:
Renowned Protestant historian of the early Church J. N. D. Kelly, writes: “Eucharistic teaching, it should be understood at the outset, was in general unquestioningly realist, i.e., the consecrated bread and wine were taken to be, and were treated and designated as, the Savior’s body and blood” (Early Christian Doctrines, 440).

Protestant? Would that be a Protestant from a communion which holds to a RP?..and if so, then what would be his bias?

Biased? Why? Because it conflicts with your ‘johnny-come-lately’ traditions? Biased in your eyes because you reject is as being merely symbolic.

**In any event, I’ll see your Kelly and raise you a Pelikan and a Van der Meer. Pelikan, in his first volume of The Christian Tradition writes:

Yet it does seem ‘express and clear’ that no orthodox father of the second or third century of whom we have record declared the presence of the body and blood of Christ in the Eucharist to be no more than symbolic (although Clement and Origen came close to doing so) or specified a process of substantial change by which the presence was effected (although Ignatius and Justin came close to doing so). Within the limits of those excluded extremes was the doctrine of the real presence .

So here we have a very respected and established scholar who understood that early Eucharistic views were very diverse with one extreme being close to a purely symbolic view. What does one need to believe in order to hold to something which is just less than a purely symbolic view? Is it that the bread is viewed as a symbol, but that it is understood that the symbol and the act possess the power to unify the participants in the body of Christ (aka the church)?**

Apparently you and so-called sources never read much on the ECF. NO 2nd or 3rd century early church fathers DECLARED the Real Presence?

Do not let the following choke your pride:

Ignatius of Antioch

“I have no taste for corruptible food nor for the pleasures of this life. I desire the bread of God, which is the flesh of Jesus Christ, who was of the seed of David; and for drink I desire his blood, which is love incorruptible” (Letter to the Romans 7:3 [A.D. 110]).

“Take note of those who hold heterodox opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ which has come to us, and see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God. . . . They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which that Father, in his goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes” (Letter to the Smyrnaeans 6:2–7:1 [A.D. 110]).

**F. van der Meer, in his renowned study Augustine the Bishop, writes:

It is perfectly true, however, that there is nowhere any indication of any awareness of the Real Presence of Christ in the Sacrament, or that he thought very much about this subject or made it the object of devotion; that was alien to the people of that age – at any rate in the West.

If Pelikan and van der Meer are correct, then it would seem that Africa (from Alexandria to Carthage), to a large degree, wasn’t on board with this real bodily presence stuff that you want to project back onto the early Church. Now if a RP mass was always the centre piece of Christian worship form Christ onwards, it is rather odd that the earliest ECFs weren’t all on board. As we learn more and more about the earliest church it becomes clearer that a considerable variety existed amongst the orthodox wrt things such as the Eucharist. That variety is consistent with the RP view as being a product of the imagination of the pious.**

Really? Then Augustine must be confused and lost because he also STATES:

“I promised you [new Christians], who have now been baptized, a sermon in which I would explain the sacrament of the Lord’s Table. . . . That bread which you see on the altar, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the body of Christ. That chalice, or rather, what is in that chalice, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the blood of Christ” (Sermons 227 [A.D. 411]).

Quote:
Here a few sources:

Ignatius of Antioch

**Yep, seen this stuff before….and dealt with the Ignatius quotes and Augustine quotes on other threads…if anyone is interested where, ask and I will provide a link. **

U-huh ,if the RP is a false or a heresy,then isn’t it an amazing mystery of early church history that the ECF are not attacking it as they did with COUNTLESS other heresies?
 

Where did I say “specifically in reference to other bishops”?

Are you stating the pope is some sort of supreme human over everyone else in all matters?

**According to 882 the Pope has supreme power over the entire church, and that would include all Catholic bishops and any college of Catholic bishops, right?

This isn’t rocket science…riddle me this, if supremacy isn’t claimed for the Pope, why does the CCC use the word “supreme” to describe his power? And if that “supreme” power isn’t unique to his office, then what other bishop is said to possess supreme power?**

You seem to confuse SUPREME with IMPECCABILITY. Exactly, SUPREME under a HIEARCHAL church. Is the President of the United States the Commander in Chief? Yep! In rank? Yep! Is he supreme in the military? Yep! But he is not impeccable.

where did I say that the Pope worked alone?..I said that the CC claims supremacy for him…your quote attributes titles of “Vicar of Christ” and “head”…if those titles don’t denote a form of supremacy, then what other bishop is said to possess such titles?

Yes and the pope also uses other titles too. And? He uses the title Servant of the Servants of God. Sure does not sound SUPREME to me.

The CC 'claims" supremacy? Ah no! Jesus is the ONE who gave Peter such a TITLE/POSITION. And why? Because if you knew the Jewish faith you would perfectly understand in Judaism, ONLY God can change your name because your name is your identity. And guess what? Jesus (God) changed Simon name to Peter. Hhmmm? I wonder what that entails?

Quote:
So Bishop of Rome is some sort of king? So the Bishop of Rome ALONE has supremacy? Funny how 893 states the following:

The bishop (ALL bishops…my emphasis added) is “the steward of the grace of the supreme priesthood,”

…and it would seem that in addition to claiming supremacy for its Pope, the CC claims supremacy for its priesthood…no surprise there. The Pope is said to have supreme power over the entire church, including the supreme priesthood.

Yep Jesus preached The Kingdom of Heaven,not the democracy of Heaven. So yes being that Jesus IS High Priest,Peter is second. And why? I told you on the above reply. So yes,thanks we follow Jesus not someone 2,000 years seperated from Jesus giving us his prejudicial opinions.

Quote:
You should read things in their proper context and their entirety before making any bogus conclusions.

**Please, you are only going further off topic and (I have got to think that you must have an inkling that) you are only embarassing yourself. If you really want to pursue this, start a thread in the Apologetics Forum, declare that the Pope doesn’t possess supremacy and see how you do with your fellow Catholics. **

Oh I yeah! I am going to embarass myself for correcting your profound misunderstandings about the papacy and Catholicism.
 
It might be the one you and yours refer to when reciting the creed…but not the rest of us.
It doesn’t matter. The Catholic Church is over 2000 years old, older than any other Church. And Jesus was on this earth more than 2000 years ago. So it shows the Church we refer to when reciting the Creed is the one Christ established.
 

The CC 'claims" supremacy? Ah no! Jesus is the ONE who gave Peter such a TITLE/POSITION. And why? Because if you knew the Jewish faith you would perfectly understand in Judaism, ONLY God can change your name because your name is your identity. And guess what? Jesus (God) changed Simon name to Peter. Hhmmm? I wonder what that entails?
I don’t believe there is anyting in Jewish law that forbids one from changing their name.
 
Oh of course! I forgot! It took over 1500 years with the advent of thousands upon thousands of man-made churches better known as Protestanism to truly discover Christianity and rectify early church history. Have anything new?
Your problem isn’t that it is just Protestants who are proposing a history of the church that undermines the Catholic claim to a unanimous consent of the Church fathers…your problem is that this bothersome history is also coming from Catholic, Orthodox, and all stripes of non-Christian historians. It seems that your response is to simply complain that they are reaching a conclusion that is different from the old one that you treasure…I guess that shouldn’t be too surprising, after all, how long did it take the CC to admit Galileo had a true discovery?
U-huh…and would you use your own argument agaisn the doctrines of the Trinity and Incarnation hammered out in the 4th century? How about the canon? None weren’t all that early,now were they?
Right…and I wouldn’t suggest that the doctrine of the Trinity or the doctrine wrt Christ’s two natures are the product of divine revelation…they are the product of man’s attempt to reasonably define the mystery of God (with reference to God’s revelation).
Biased? Why? Because it conflicts with your ‘johnny-come-lately’ traditions?
No, b/c everyone has a bias…it is merely a question of how well one eliminates its effect.
Apparently you and so-called sources never read much on the ECF. NO 2nd or 3rd century early church fathers DECLARED the Real Presence?
do really want to put your knowledge of the ECFs up against the likes of Pelikan?..you are only going to embarass yourself.
Ignatius of Antioch
“I have no taste for corruptible food nor for the pleasures of this life. I desire the bread of God, which is the flesh of Jesus Christ, who was of the seed of David; and for drink I desire his blood, which is love incorruptible” (Letter to the Romans 7:3 [A.D. 110]).
“Take note of those who hold heterodox opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ which has come to us, and see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God. . . . They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which that Father, in his goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes” (Letter to the Smyrnaeans 6:2–7:1 [A.D. 110]).
Did you read these? Did you note that Iggy says Christ’s blood = incorruptible love? Not exactly literal…which isn’t unusual at all. Ignatius tends to stray from the literal which is why you can’t be sure that when he said that the “Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ” that he was talking about a RP. At that point he is talking about the Docetists. When Ignatius states that the Eucharist is the flesh, he could mean that the Eucharist is the flesh a)literally, b)symbolically, c)sacramentally, d)representatively, or e)mysteriously etc. The Docetists seemed to deny that Christ came in the flesh. As such, they would not confess that the Eucharist was literally the flesh of Christ b/c no such flesh existed. Likewise, they would not confess that the Eucharist was symbolically the flesh of Christ b/c no such flesh existed. In fact, they would not confess that the Eucharist was the flesh of Christ in any way, shape or form b/c (they believed that) no such flesh existed. Here is an article that goes into detail…you won’t like the conclusion (b/c it doesn’t suit your faith), but the reasoning is sound.
Really? Then Augustine must be confused and lost because he also STATES:
“I promised you [new Christians], who have now been baptized, a sermon in which I would explain the sacrament of the Lord’s Table. . . . That bread which you see on the altar, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the body of Christ. That chalice, or rather, what is in that chalice, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the blood of Christ” (Sermons 227 [A.D. 411]).
No it is you who is confused…I suspect you are projecting your usage onto Augustine’s words. Just b/c you mean a RP by that terminology doesn’t mean that Augustine did. You need to read more than a few snippets of Augustine to grasp his view. Follow this thread from start to finish and tell me if you have anything to add…your quoting of a few sentences out of context does not begin to address the matter…but before you even start, you should ask yourself, if Augustine’s support for a RP is as obvious as your sentence or two from sermon 227 would suggest, how could the experts so badly miss Augustine’s belief in a RP? What is more likely? A) that you haven’t grasped Augustine’s meaning; or B) the experts somehow missed those passages that every Catholic apologist wannabe copies and pastes at the drop of a hat?
 
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