S
seamusmohr
Guest
seamusmohr;6560637:
Quite possibly so, but you give only your belief or preference and with all due respect this isn’t enough!That’s a point of view, but it isn’t mine, neither is it born out by my reading habits!I beg your pardon? My BELIEF? No! It is the BELIEF of the early church. No offense,but the problem is that you simply have not taken the time to study the early church.
We should enquire who the Holy Fathers were?
They were ,for the most part, the College of Bishops and theologians of the first four centuries of the Christian era, later on they were the College of Bishops met in the Church Councils, especially the Ecumenical ones!
The interesting thing is that these people, Bishops, Council fathers and so on, did not hold the Bishop of Rome as anything other than an important Bishop. One who held a See, erected by not one but two Apostles. Who had as his parishioner the Emperor and who had received important privileges from the Emperor, such as to use the armed forces of the state to enforce his religious views!
First of all, I do not refuse Peter’s primacy! But I do claim apart from Peter’s prominence in early books of the NT, and his early endevours, Antioch ,Alexandria and so forth, there’s very little to back up your claims! There is nothing in Scripture or Tradition to account for these Petrine privileges, or Primacy being passed on to the Bishop of Rome!I did refer to the fact of his, [Peter’s] rather quiet part in the Council of Jerusalem, where the lead was taken by James, the Great! Even more to the point, the Seven Ecumenical Councils,probably the most illustrious time in the whole of our Church history saw very little part being played by the various Bishops of Rome, indeed the papacy actually opposed some of them . These great Councils being called, activated and regulated by the emperors and apart from one instance, [Pope Leo,] the only part the papacy played was to affirm them! Which was no more than any other bishop did!I’ll ask you again,if Peter had no primacy,then explain to me why would bishops from the East and West take their issues to Rome to be settled? I have the historical cases to back up my argument,where are yours clearly showing papal primacy was a usurpation of Christ?
Regarding to appeals to Rome? The Councils, at the request of the Emperor called a Council at which British Bishops were present, the Council of Sardica! [Sophia.] The purpose was to clear from the Emperor of Rome the constant irritant of Catholic bishops appealing to the Monarch for arbitration in their religious quarrels. The Council gave the Bishop of Rome permission to adjudicate in certain cases, but chiefly he was to allocate the quarrels to other patriarchs and keep the problems away from the Emperors. It is to be noted that this facility was for limited cases and was from the Church, at the instigation by the Emperor. Also, various Apostolical Sees and patriarchies were given roles of communicating and distributing various attitudes and actions of Church matters to the more remote areas,i.e. western Europe. This gave various disreputable Bishops and Clergy, opportunities to play on the weakness’s, in Rome’s ,collective character and appeal against their own disciplinary process, i.e. Africa and Cyprian.
I should also point out that for the best part of a Century, the Eastern Church, or large parts of it were out of communion with Rome, S.Firmilion was canonised after spending his working life as a respected Bishop out of Communion with Rome and the West! Interesting isn’t it that the early christian Bishops appealed to The Emperor rather than the papacy?