If God is omniscient, I think he must have this kind of knowledge
, since we ourselves have it, and God is far above us.
The thing is… we
don’t have knowledge of counterfactuals. We might offer opinions or arguments about what might be (but which does not exist), but we have no knowledge about them. An example might be helpful: if God had created someone (whom He did not, actually, create), and you married them, what would the color of the hair be of the children you would have had? See what I mean? The person doesn’t exist… so we can’t say anything about it; it’s not real … it’s
counterfactual.
To those who assert that Molinism is false, please justify the following belief:
“God is ignorant of counterfactuals.”
That’s just a rather poor attempt to shift the burden of proof. If you want to assert that Molinism is true, the burden of proof is on
you to demonstrate it’s true; it’s not our job to disprove a theory you cannot prove on your own.
By intuition, it would seem that God would know what A would do in situation B whether or not A or B are real
in the sense that they have ever or will ever exist. Why is this not the case?
Explain what your intuition is – in concrete terms – and why it’s logical, and we can discuss it. Simply saying “it seems to me that it should be that way” does nothing to help demonstrate your case.
Also, doesn’t the dogma of the immaculate conception imply Molinism? God knew that Mary would say yes, and that is how he was able to preemptively grant her a “singular grace” derived from the merit of her son’s sacrificial act before the fact.
No, it doesn’t demonstrate Molinism. You’re confusing ‘foreknowledge’ with ‘counterfactuals’. God foreknew Mary’s answer because He sees all things timelessly. The “before the fact” part that you attribute to Molinism is instead just a logical result of the fact that there’s no ‘before’ or ‘after’ in God.
If you say this knowledge isn’t counterfactual since both events actually
happened, then how can it be said that Mary’s “yes” proceeds from her free will rather than God’s overwhelming grace obliterating her free will?
Not sure how you’re making the leap from ‘knowledge’ to ‘obliteration of free will’. If I know that your favorite ice cream is pistachio, and I take you to an ice cream shop that sells pistachio ice cream, I might
know that you’ll choose pistachio… but that doesn’t mean that I’ve
forced or even
coerced you into choosing that flavor. The choice is yours; knowledge of that choice is mine. These are two distinct notions.
Consider then, could Mary have said “no?” Impossible!
Not so. It was, in fact, quite possible. The joy of Mary’s fiat was that she, unlike Eve, said ‘yes’ to God when given that choice in that critical moment.
God would not have been able to apply that grace to her at the moment of her conception because Jesus would never have existed, or at least would not have been her
son.
What’s happening here is that you’re getting yourself all twisted up as you move from temporal frameworks to atemporal ones.