I am only talking about one possible creation, where everyone freely loves and obeys God. It is logically possible, therefore God could do it.
If everyone “freely loves and obeys God”, then everyone has the choice to love Him or not. If one, then, chooses not to ‘love’ or ‘obey’, then that’s an exercise of his personal free will. His choice does not reflect back on God, except inasmuch as God gave him the gift of free will.
However, that’s not what you’re really arguing for: what you’re really arguing for is a world in which God
enforces unwavering obedience. In that world, there is no free will. In that world, we aren’t free moral agents, we are ‘robots’.
That’s the world that you want to suggest; and it’s a world that
isn’t superior to our world.
Do you prefer to have a toothache and then having a root canal, or would you prefer a healthy dentition? Do you prefer to be half-starved and then to get a meal?
Yet, having had a toothache, I learned the importance of good dental hygiene; the toothache taught me a lesson that benefited me in my life. Likewise, having gone without food, I am able to better appreciate the giftedness of having sufficient food on my plate. These are two excellent counter-examples to your assertion: it is, clearly, not the case that a lack of suffering is always and in every case superior to the existence of suffering. Thank you for helping prove my case.
We are biological beings, who try to avoid the negative experiences.
Absolutely we are. Yet, ‘negative experiences’ – in a finite (and/or relatively small scale of) time – can have a positive long-term effect. Do all ‘negative experiences’ have this behavior? That depends on the length and scope of the ‘long-term effect’. However, it’s clear that your rather broadly asserted notion doesn’t hold up to scrutiny.
You are not going to take a hammer, and pound on your other thumb, just because it feels sooo good, when you stop it.
You’ve just moved the goalposts. The question isn’t whether we
seek out negative experiences, as you’ve just attempted to shade the discussion, but whether negative experiences have the capacity to have beneficial long-term outcomes.
So, don’t say that it was “freely” asserted. You provide the supporting evidence, every moment of your life.
I think you completely misunderstand the aphorism: it means that if you ‘freely assert’ something, without providing a supporting argument or evidence, then your ‘freely asserted’ notion may be freely denied.
Do you actually live according that principle? Don’t you put your arms in front of you, when you stumble? Don’t you brush your teeth to prevent tooth decay?
Here we go – goalposts on the move, again.
The question isn’t whether one naturally attempts to minimize negative experiences; it’s whether good may result from things that appear – in a particular contextual framework – to be wholly negative.
Ah, so the good people who never WANT to rape someone are actually “robots”. Who would have thunk it?
If that’s an argument disguised as snark, you’ve exceeded your wildest expectations: it has no characteristics of an argument at all! Congrats!
However, if I’m being charitable and want to supply your argument for you, then I think you’re saying that a universe in which people are created without free will – but rather, simply have eternal beatitude given to them – is better than a universe in which people have free will. We disagree with that notion: free will is one of the greatest gifts God has given us. It is also, unfortunately, a gift which people may choose to misuse.
Tonyrey asserted the same. He said that the final outcome of “not creating” and “creating and then killing” is the same, so there is no distinction. The “final” outcome of robbing a bank and working for your money is the same, therefore there is no difference. The final outcome of abstinence and contraception is the same… therefore there is no difference.
I haven’t read his assertion, so I cannot comment whether you correctly understand him – or if you misunderstand or are lampooning his comment. However, that doesn’t seem accurate. “Creating and then killing” is not identical to “not creating”. Can you point me to his post, so that I might respond to it?
However, your response is deficient. The issue isn’t “final outcome”, it’s whether the entire framework is identical: one who abstains
is, in fact, distinguishable from one who contracepts; one who robs a bank
is distinguishable from one who works. Your response, then, inadequately responds to my assertion. Perhaps you’d like to try again?
There is no such thing as “more logical”.
Fair enough; that’s a reasonable objection. Yet, it completely fails to address my case. At best, it asks me to re-phrase that sentence as “the two cases are indistinguishable, and since the former shows no evidence of free will (as you assert exists there), then you cannot claim it as a logical possibility.”
No one can “prove” that free will exists. It is merely a reasonable assumption.
Are you asserting that free will does not exist, then?