âBefore Abraham was, I amâ
Maybe we could all discuss this one
to me, this is VERY clear that Christ is calling Himself God. Not only by saying that He has always existed, before Abraham, but also calling Himself the âI AMâ - Godâs Name.
Dear Monica,
Yes, that is a very good one to begin with.
First of all, have you taken the time to examine how these two verses are worded within other Bibles, that is, both at John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14; especially taking note of any footnotes which might be offered therein? If you havenât already done this, might I suggest that you do so and see what you can find.
Although it must be acknowledged that, within many a Bible translation, a parallel does certainly
appear to be there, that is, in the commonly adopted wording of âI amâ at both places, on the other hand, I have found that, when you look around at other Bibles, you will start to witness some significant differences - especially when you compare what has been opted as the wording within the translated main text itself, that is, as compared with what many a footnote might also otherwise reveal.
Quite interestingly, when examining the
Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14, that is, the translation done by Jews from the Hebrew to Greek (started some 200+ years before Jesusâ time, of which, both Jesus and the apostles had, themselves, quoted from quite freely), I think you will find something very enlightening.
Whereas, at John 8:58, Jesus ends with the Greek, âego eimiâ (commonly rendered into English as âI amâ), within the ending phrase of Exodus 3:14, that is, within the wording of the
Greek Septuagint Version, we read something quite different. Granted, earlier within that same verse, the Greek does have, âego eimi ho on,â but, when it is that Jehovah is recorded to have concluded his statement, it is quite significant to note that he does not say to Moses, ââego eimiâ has sent be to you,â but has said instead, ââho onâ has sent me to you.â
See:
Greek Septuagint and Hebrew Interlinearâs
In other words, although many an English Bible translation (as done by Trinitarian scholars), have, by way of their choice of wording, caused
some to believe that there is a direct link between these two verses - that is, as a purposeful parallel being made between Jehovahâs words (at Exodus 3:14) and Jesusâ words (at John 8:58) - apart from that purpose being one as manufactured by way of the agenda of Trinitarian translators, when it comes to the actual wording of Scriptures themselves, there is, in fact, none to be seen.
On the chance that you might be interested, the following link provides some greater, more detailed discussion of this topic:
John 8:58âs "EGO EIMI"
Agape, JohnOneOne.
Good Companion Books
[P.S. - Monica4316: Just as a side note to you and others looking on. Because it is quite typical to encounter many who would like to enter into discussion on such topics, it must be realized that, for as much as I might desire to address them all, I simply can not. Therefore, because Iâve started this dialogue with âMonica4316,â in my attempts at being as thorough in my replies to her as I can, I must limit them to her only. Thanking you in advance for your kind understanding, I bid you Kalos Agape.]
