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MindOverMatter2
Guest
Did you notice here that it is speaking of Christian doctrine, and not science? Is a geocentric model of the universe a Christian Doctrine/dogma? I am not aware that the Fathers unanimously taught this dogma/doctrine of faith. You know, the Fathers possibly agreed on a whole lot of other things that have nothing to do with doctrine; does it make it doctrine? If all the Fathers have an opinion the taste of meat, and say that meat tastes bad, does this mean that it is an infallible doctrine? Does context have no role to play in what is infallible and what isn’t?The UNANIMOUS teaching of the Fathers is considered infallible by the Church. The unanimous interpretation of the Fathers was geocentric in faith as well as in reality.
Council of Trent stated
‘Furthermore, in order to curb imprudent clever persons, the synod decrees that no one who relies on his own judgement in matters of faith and morals, which pertain to the building up of Christian doctrine, and that no one who distorts the Sacred Scripture according to his own opinions, shall dare to interpret the said Sacred Scripture contrary to that sense which is held by holy Mother Church, whose duty it is to judge regarding the true sense and interpretation of the holy Scriptures, or even contrary to the unanimous consent of the Fathers, even though interpretations of this kind were never intended to be brought to light. Let those who shall oppose this be reported by their ordinaries and be punished with the penalties prescribed by law.’ — (Denzinger - 786)
Now if their geocentric reading is found false, then yes, the Catholic Church, which issued the above teaching is also false.
You understanding is poor. Its whether they were speaking in the context of infallible doctrine which will determine whether or not it is fallible.
You are taken things out of context.