The same thing could be said of the Torah.
The same thing has been said about Torah.
On the other hand, the Bible as a whole is more of a compilation of sacred writings, composed over millenia, in a wide array of different circumstances for the chosen of God.
Its origin as a whole does not belong to any specific political event.
I would agree that this is the reason Arabs so quickly acquired an empire. I would also agree that many of their practices (such as the treatment of religious minorities) was in imitation of the Sassanian practice.
Could be.
The same could be said of Christianity.
Not as much, no.
Not with any real accuracy anyway.
Christianity is based in one specific historic event, which is the biography of Jesus Christ as God and human and divine sacrifice. The focus of Christianity is fulfillment of Scripture, as Scripture exists in the Law and the Prophets and the Writings that have come before in the sacred history of God’s chosen people, Israel.
It is an almost exclusively sourced from existing Scripture in order to allow understanding.
To the extent that Muslims reject OT Scripture as corrupted, they exclude themselves from that kind of understanding
Keep in mind that Muslims only conquered half of the Byzantine Empire whereas they conquered the entirety of the Sassanian Empire where Christians were an insignificant minority.
Egypt, North Africa, Jerusalem, and Syria were not insignificant in producing the first generations of Christians thinkers for sure. Turkey was the stomping grounds of Christianitities greatest evangelists as well, Paul of Tarsus.
Christianity was not insignificant at all to the lands of the House of Islam, nor are the books of apocryphal Christianity insignificant to the creation of the Koran. Persians were wholy absorbed;Christiandom was only half absorbed. That is the main difference.
There is more to it than that. The portions of the Byzantine Empire which quickly fell to the Arabs were those parts inhabited by those who spoke Aramaic rather than Greek. Yes, they followed a different form of Christianity than than the Orthodox/Catholic version imposed by the state, but they were far from ignorant of their religion. The fact is that they felt persecuted by the Byzantines.
Many were persecuted by the Byzantines. It wasn’t just a feeling. Copts may not have felt so culturally akin to semitic Arabs at the time, but they knew only too well the boot of the Byzantine.
And the further from the centre of Byzantine power, the greater the heterodoxy. Arabia in particular was fully on the outskirts.
I touched on the heterodoxy already with my allusion to Arian Christianity (which is a metaphor to describe the milieu as much as an historical event).
One must also understand however that the preponderance of Christians before the printing press, like the preponderance of people everywhere, were illiterate. For the preponderance then, as communication was made even slightly more difficult with the more educated Christian elites, name-dropping of Jesus and the other prophets could be very effective in the centuries long process of Christians becoming Muslims.
…
It is more complicated than that.
Suffice to say, any centuries long process is more complicated than what can be described in a paragraph. History books are the source for details. An internet post is a vehicle for a quick insight and a generalized understanding only.
The OP question was specific. My answers was limited to answering that.
The Qur’an explicitly refers to Jesus as the Messiah and as the Word of God. He referred to as the Spirit of God as well. But I grant you this does not imply that he is a savior. I guess the real question is to what extent did Jesus see himself as a savior?
Not Saviour,
Nor God either.
As the interpretation of for this name-dropping tendency became more and more set in stone in the House of Islam, the whole import of the orthodox Christian message is lost.
From the vantage point that the NT writings of the first Christian century are corrupted, and relying mainly on the apocryphal writings of later Christian heterodoxy, and a voice from an illiterate and heavily Jewish influenced Arabic mercantile culture a half a millenium later, I would guess that the real question would be “which source for the historic Jesus should be more considered more historically authentic”?
That would be a rhetorical question of course.