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Originally Posted by Nicea325
Chafer DTS:Chapter and verse where Scripture declares it is the sole infallible rule of faith and practice?
Paul did refer to Scripture as making the man of God complete or sufficient ( base on NT Greek word used there ) for his task of doctrine, reproof, correction and instruction for righteousness.
So Paul was defending and supporting Sola Scriptura? Really?
That is what Paul wrote in 2 Tim. 3:16-18. It likewise teaches that Scripture is given by inspiration of God which places this is a special class from all other things that are oral or written. We have no claimed prophets of God or apostles today thus we presently have no so called inspired unwritten oral tradition.
So tell me…what other NT scriptures did Paul include to consider Scripture supreme in those verses? Show me where Paul teaches oral traditions have no weight or are less than Scripture? When did oral traditions cease and who said it? By the way, 2 Tim 3:16-18 has been debunked a million times and has been shown Paul was not writing those verses to advocate Scripture as supreme.
The facts are this : 1 ) Scripture is sufficient for the man of God for his task. 2 )
And facts are this…water is sufficient for man’s survival…but not water alone.
The nature and quality of Scripture makes it supreme. It is inspired by God and is in a class by itself.
Pure conjecture and aman-made tradtion NO WHERE taught by Jesus or the 12. God is Supreme…not simply His written Words. BTW: Pleas show me one ecumenical council teaching: the nature and quality of Scripture makes it supreme?
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Who says they are secondary? Does scripture teach these facets are secondary to scripture?
If they are not inspired by God they are by necessity secondary since they are not equal to Scripture
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First show me where the Bible teaches this? Second, where does God teach EVERYTHING must be said and taught in the Bible? Third, where does God teach everything not inspired, written or unwritten is to be considered secondary?
Scripture claims inspiration of God for itself. That is enough for me.
Wrong! How can written words binded in one volume on its own make such a declaration? The end result (Bible) cannot be greater than the Creator (Christ Church).
I was under the impression that you and others held that Scripture is a partial rule of faith ? Why are you attacking Scripture if you view it as a partial rule of faith ? Yes Scripture teaches those other things are secondary. Remember the days of the apostles had the oral word of God and the written word of God and were binding on Christians. We no longer have the oral word of God since we presently have no prophets or apostles today. And we are no longer adding new individual books to the NT Canon.
No one here is not saying such a thing. What we disagree is your false belief that Scripture is supreme because it is no where taught or said explicitly anywhere. Your interpretations are deeply questionable.
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Chapter and verse where Scriptures teaches this position? So the council of Jersualem in 49/50 AD was subject to scripture? Which scripture? Which canon? Which Bible? Which NT writings?
Acts 15:15 is where James appealed to Amos 9 for the basis of His judgement on the doctrinal issue that was dealt with. At that time they had the OT.
Historically inaccurate. If they had the OT during the first century,tell me when,where,and by WHOSE authority was the OT was canonized?
Individual NT books get added to the rule of faith when they are written and collected. You see as each NT book is written the rule of faith gets expanded to include them as they are inspired Scripture. Much of your questions do not deal with something I said or claimed and therefore attempting to argue againist a strawman.
If you believe the NT books were all added and collected into one single collection after they were written by the first century it is you who has produced a strawman.
I never claimed they appealed to the NT. I said Scripture.
Exactly! So tell me WHICH Bible was supreme when Paul wrote and Jesus Himself taught Scripture was supreme,according to your argument? How many books? Which books? Which canon?
Not unless you want to deny the NT in it’s status as being inspired Scripture. The offical RCC position is that Scripture is a partial rule of faith. Why are you attacking Scripture on this point since it is at the very least a partial rule of faith for Roman Catholics ? Makes no sense at all.
Again,the argument here is not on the validity of Scripture,but your position that Scripture is SUPREME. I have yet to read where Scripture explicitly teaches it is SUPREME.
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Chapter and verse Scriptures teaches are other things are fallible while Scripture is the only infallible source?
Logical fallacy is being used.
On the contrary, it is very logical. It is you alone who believes Scripture is supreme and in order to believe such a position Scripture must evidently teach: Scripture is Supreme on all matters of faith and teachings. The logical fallacy falls on you because you have yet to tell me **WHICH canonized Bible **was being used by Jesus,Apostles or Paul or the OT writers in defense of Sola Scriptura?
You demand me to prove a universal negative.
A universal negative? You mean something so vital for our salvation such as Sola Scriptura is a negative? Agan, if it is explicitly taught then show me where one verse where it reads along the lines: Scripture IS the final authority on all matters of faith and teaching.
The positive teaching for my position of that Scripture claims itself to be written by the inspiration of God
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Sorry,but it cannot claim anything unless by an external source. Then why bother to even convene council after council to develop the canon?
The burden of proof would lie with you on proving those other things are equally inspired by God. 2 Tim 3:16-18 is good enough for me to believe Scripture is inspired by God and thefore it’s nature and quality are special to it. We have no basis to expand inspiration to so called unwritten oral doctrinal traditions, councils and for forth without any basis.
Wrong! The burden of proof lies all on you for believing a doctrine no where taught explicitly by God or by His Apostles. I want to read where the Bible explicitly teaches it is the SUPREME rule.
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How ironic such a Biblical position has produced thousands of denominations due to the fact Scripture should have the straight-foward answer-right?
And nice denial.
We are fallible human beings as such we are imperfect. Schism is the result of sin. That is what Paul in 1 Cor 1:10-17 teaches. I view the entire professing church as guilty of this at time. If we followed your illogic we must reject christianity itself due to the many divisions within it.
Ilogical rebuttal. I thought Scripture is Supreme? If it is supreme thus it must be straight-forward,then why the need to found thousands of different denominations? I am sure scripture teaches demoninations are biblically sound-right?
The big issue is you failed to take in to account of Romans 16:17-19. There can be at least according to that verse proper reason for separation when necessary and is not sinful.
And the big issue you failed with Roman 16:17-18 is that Paul is not advocating the founding of denominations based on disagreements. Sounds a like a mere cop-out to defend the endless divisions of Protestanism.
The Bible plus Tradition itself has resulted in divisions as well such as the separation between the Roman Catholic Church, Eastern Orthodox and Old Catholics.
And that is a reason to defend the countless divisions of Protestanism? Does not matter who disagrees with any doctrine or dogma, the Truth still moves on. God is not concerned with our opinions. Disagreements or opinions have no bearing on doctrinal matters.
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Chapter and verse where Scriptures declares such a position? Please show us where Jesus Himself held to such a position and taught it?
I would really like to read where Jesus explicitly teaches: The Bible is supreme.