M
MarkRome
Guest
So who was Jesus? Just a man?There was no such thing as a trinity to the 1st century church.
So who was Jesus? Just a man?There was no such thing as a trinity to the 1st century church.
Unfortunately, one cannot reason themselves into faith. Faith is not contradictory to reason, though. I have a reasonable faith. I will say that only the Catholic Church (by extension the Orthodox as well) place a high regard for reason.So, for the purposes of this discussion, you can say that I reject Jesus Christ.
I’m sorry but there’s no way to say “one cannot reason themselves into faith” without faith being unreasonable in some way. I think I mentioned it here:Unfortunately, one cannot reason themselves into faith. Faith is not contradictory to reason, though. I have a reasonable faith. I will say that only the Catholic Church (by extension the Orthodox as well) place a high regard for reason.
In short, there’s really no way to say that faith cannot be arrived at through reason without being unreasonable. Also, if I’m not mistaken, the Catholic Church affirms that the existence of God and Jesus Christ’s resurrection can be affirmed purely through reason without need for faith. So the Catholic Church itself admits that faith can be arrived at through reason.Let me ask you this. How do you know that your Divine Revelation is true? If your answer is that “it comes from God”, I’d ask “How do you know that?” If your answer is “because it just is”, I’d point out that you’re being circular, and you’re begging the question. If your answer is that you had a personal experience, I’d ask "How do you know that your experience is correct and not the Muslim’s experience? Or, how do you know that your personal experience is reliable? I mean, after all, we know from psychology that humans are susceptible to all sorts of biases and problems when it comes to just personal experiences. If your answer is an appeal to the Historical arguments for Christianity, or some other argument, then it turns out that all along you were basing your faith on reason.
What I wrote turned out a bit messy, I mean that for God to be always entails a personal state of being. I didn’t mean to say that His Attributes are different to His Persons per se, but rather that when we refer to Gods simple Existence (His Ent) that is still a personal kind of existence. Therefore His Persons can’t simply blend into the other aspects of His entity. (Well they could, but they don’t have to).What do you mean by “The personal aspect of God is already engraved in the word “to be””?
That is not what I’m trying to say, I am trying to say that in order for an x is y to become x=y we need the specific piece of information that we’re talking about an equation.for you to say that x is something within some category y,
I’m sorry but I’m very confused as to what your point is when you say “when we refer to God’s simple existence, that is still a personal kind of existence” because, if anything, this is supporting my view rather than refuting it. If you agree that God’s simple existence is personal, or that it is personhood, then it would have to follow that there could not be a multiplicity in persons precisely because it is equal to his Simple Existence, which could not be a multitude.What I wrote turned out a bit messy, I mean that for God to be always entails a personal state of being. I didn’t mean to say that His Attributes are different to His Persons per se, but rather that when we refer to Gods simple Existence (His Ent) that is still a personal kind of existence. Therefore His Persons can’t simply blend into the other aspects of His entity. (Well they could, but they don’t have to).
How does this follow from what you said earlier at all? If anything, this is the exact opposite of the conclusion that is entailed. If you agree that God’s existence is a personal kind of existence, meaning that it is his personhood, then how could you say that these “other aspects” of his entity aren’t? We both hold to Divine Simplicity. We both understand that the “aspects” of his “entity” are and must be identical to his entity, so why does this follow?Therefore His Persons can’t simply blend into the other aspects of His entity. (Well they could, but they don’t have to).
That’s true. I don’t disagree, but we do have that specific piece of information. It’s called the Doctrine of Divine Simplicity. The reason why this shows that we must be talking about an equation is that for us to not talk about an equation would lead to some composition. Either the genus/species distinction, or a substance/properties distinction, neither of which can exist in God.That is not what I’m trying to say, I am trying to say that in order for an x is y to become x=y we need the specific piece of information that we’re talking about an equation.
I’m not claiming that it is logically impossible in light of the Doctrine of the Trinity, but rather, in light of the Doctrine of Divine Simplicity. Sure, the Trinity can work, but only in a being that isn’t absolutely simple, which wouldn’t be the Pure Act, Uncaused Cause.That’s not given in the doctrine of the Trinity, in fact it is specifically specified that the Father is God and the Son is God, but these are distinct from each other. If you need to use an analogy of species and genus to make sense of how such a relationship is possible, then do so, but don’t claim it is logically impossible.
I don’t know. I might look into other religious traditions, or, I might just become a Classical Theist with no religion who just contemplates Pure Act (God).Where are you going to?
Not true. Only the existence of God can be known through reason alone. Aristotle found this. However, Jesus Christ, as Son of God, is Divine Revelation. He came to reveal the Father to us as His Son. Even those who were with Jesus didn’t believe he was the Son of God. Many disciples turned away. Jesus asked the twelve after the Bread of Life Discourse, “and who do you say that I am?” where Peter answered, “Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.” and Jesus said to Peter Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven." That’s Divine Revelation.In short, there’s really no way to say that faith cannot be arrived at through reason without being unreasonable. Also, if I’m not mistaken, the Catholic Church affirms that the existence of God and Jesus Christ’s resurrection can be affirmed purely through reason without need for faith. So the Catholic Church itself admits that faith can be arrived at through reason.
Here is a quote from the Catechism…Not true. Only the existence of God can be known through reason alone. Aristotle found this. However, Jesus Christ, as Son of God, is Divine Revelation.
I read a lot of it (because the encyclical itself is very long and I don’t have much time to read it), and it seems to me that the Church very much affirms the use of philosophy and science, so much so that they go as far as to say, and I quote (from this encyclical)Please read the encyclical I mentioned. God bless.
I’m still agnostic on that issue. I’ll think about it more, but like I said, it cannot be small o orthodox Christianity because, in my view, it’s illogical and incoherent.Maybe you don’t believe that the apostles really saw the risen Jesus? It was a herd mentality? Delusions?
What would you say is incorrect about my definitions?The thing is, you haven’t demonstrated anything that the Church teaches is contrary to reason. Have you thought that maybe you don’t have the correct definitions of Person, Simplicity, Essence, etc.?
It is not at all, in the incarnation as with the trinity, the undefine-edness is pushed onto “person.” So before we go further, just lay out a correspondingly self explanatory definition of “person” that applies to both mysteries. Think “necessary and sufficient conditions for being a person” kind of definition.I just said, he is one person with two natures. I think that is pretty self explanatory.
I think you need to refamiliarize yourself with the tenets of the Trinity doctrine. Think about this…Trinitarians tell us that the holy spirit is a ‘third’ person - and completely different - yet same person as God the Father and Jesus. So if that’s the case, what’s is the holy spirit’s name?Why is Holy Spirit called “Spirit of the Son” then? Holy Spirit is Spirit of the Father, no? And as such, how can God’s spirit belong to someone else?
Baptizing in the name of Father, son, and holy spirit has nothing to do with a co-equal Trinity. Yes, the holy spirit IS the power of God - His active force which is manifested through the 7 spirits of God.Yet Church baptized (as Bible told them to) in name of Father, Son and the Holy Spirit. That would mean they baptized in name of God, Human and… God’s force or whatever you think Holy Spirit is.