K
KJW5551
Guest
Rose you must be joking. A) I did flag it and B) a usurper is one who usurps. What are we arguing semantics now? Please huh.
thus effectively refuting the heretical Roman conception of the procession of the Holy Spirit.Thus the way of the knowledge of God lies from One Spirit through the One Son to the One Father, and conversely the natural Goodness and the inherent Holiness and the royal Dignity extend from the Father through the Only-begotten to the Spirit. Thus there is both acknowledgment of the hypostases and the true dogma of the Monarchy is not lost.
The Holy Spirit 18:47, Basil the Great, 375 A.D.
Orthodox Christians believe in ancestral sin instead of Augustinian original sin. Ancestral sin differs from original sin in that we believe that we sin because of death, so death leads to sin not sin unto death i.e. as a punishment. St. John of Damascus (676 A.D. - 749 A.D.) lays this out in his “An Exact Exposition of Orthodox Faith”. As Orthodox, we believe Adam was created neither in a state of mortality nor immortality, rather we believe that God granted him two decisions, and out of his own free will he chose death. Many Orthodox Christians believe that, even if Adam hadn’t sinned, the Son would’ve still incarnated as Christ to complete man’s road to salvation.
- How do you understand Original Sin?
From what has been observed, the famous expression, eph’ho pantes hemarton [(ἐφ’ ᾧ πάντες ἥμαρτον)], can be safely interpreted as modifying the word, thanatos [(θάνατος)], which precedes it, and which grammatically is the only word which fits the context. Eph’ho [(ἐφ’ ᾧ)] as a reference to Adam is both grammatically and exegetically impossible. Such an interpretation was first introduced by Origen, who obviously used it with a purpose in mind, because he believed in the pre-existence of all souls whereby he could easily say that all sinned in Adam. The interpretation of eph’ho [(ἐφ’ ᾧ)] as “because” was first introduced into the East by Photius,2 who claims that there are two interpretations prevalent—Adam and thanatos [(θάνατος)]—but he would interpret it dioti ([διότι,] because). He bases his argument on a false interpretation of II Corinthians 5:4 by interpreting eph’ho [(ἐφ’ ᾧ)], here again, as dioti [(διότι)]. But here it is quite clear that eph’ho [(ἐφ’ ᾧ)] refers to skenei [σκήνει] ([ἐφ’ ᾧ (σκήνει) οὐ θέλομεν ἐκδύσασθαι], eph’ho (skenei) ou thelomen ekdysasthai). Photius is interpreting Paul within the framework of natural moral law and is seeking to justify the death of all men by personal guilt. He claims that all men die because they sin by following in the footsteps of Adam.3 However, neither he nor any of the Eastern Fathers accepts the teaching that all men are made guilty for the sin of Adam.
From purely grammatical considerations it is impossible to interpret eph’ho [(ἐφ’ ᾧ)] as a reference to any word other than thanatos [(θάνατος)]. Each time the grammatical construction of the preposition epi [(ἐπί)] with the dative is used by Paul, it is always used as a relative pronoun which modifies a preceding noun4 or phrase.5 To make an exception in Romans 5:12 by making St. Paul use the wrong Greek expression to express the idea, “because,” is to beg the issue. The correct interpretation of this passage, both grammatically and exegetically, can be supplied only when eph’ho [(ἐφ’ ᾧ)] is understood to modify thanatos [(θάνατος)]—kai houtos eis pantas anthropous ho thanatos dielthen eph’ho (thanato) pantes hemarton [(καὶ οὕτως εἰς πάντας ἀνθρώπους ὁ θάνατος διῆλθεν, ἐφ’ ᾧ (θάνατο) πάντες ἥμαρτον)]—“because of which” (death), or “on the basis of which” (death), or “for which (death) all have sinned.” Satan, being himself the principle of sin, through death and corruption involves all of humanity and creation in sin and death. Thus, to be under the power of death according to Paul is to be a slave to the devil and a sinner, because of the inability of the flesh to live according to the law of God, which is selfless love.1
Since we do not see ancestral sin as entailing guilt or punishment, we do not believe the the Roman dogma of the Immaculate Conception. Orthodox do generally believe that the Theotokos, being the tabernacle, was free from all personal sin, though we don’t dogmatize this doctrine, at least not in the same way the Roman Catholic Church has, but it’s not an optional doctrine either as all Orthodox should believe in it since it is an integral part of holy Tradition.
- What is your understanding of the Immaculate Conception?
I’m not sure to be honest.In your jurisdiction, what is the stance regarding Anglican holy orders?
Absolutely.AND, when you become Orthodox, will you please say a round of the chotki for me?
What are you talking about? Are you confusing autocephaly with full communion? Just because one Church doesn’t view another as fully autocephalous doesn’t mean they’re not in communion, those are two completely different things. For example, the Russian Orthodox Church affirms the OCA as fully autocephalous, whereas the Ecumenical Patriarch of Constantinople would not. But we’re all still in full communion with each other. When I become Orthodox I will be able to receive the Eucharist in both of these Churches.I ask again then: how can you claim the oneness of the Orthodox Church when all of its members aren’t even in communion with one another?