Immaculate Conception for everyone?

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Hi guys,

If God saw it just to make Our Lady’s conception immaculate, why couldn’t he do that for all or many other humans to help them in being preserved from sin?

Do you know the answer or do you have a resource that may contain the answer?
 
We cannot save ourselves from sin, we needed and need Jesus to save us.
Mary’s Immaculate Conception is because of Jesus, Mary is unique exception. Even with benefit of Immaculate Conception she didn’t save herself.
Immaculate Conception is dogma of Church. Read more here:


Cathecism of Catholic Church:
The Immaculate Conception
490 To become the mother of the Savior, Mary "was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role."132 The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as “full of grace”.133 In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God’s grace.
491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, “full of grace” through God,134 was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:
The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.135
492 The “splendor of an entirely unique holiness” by which Mary is “enriched from the first instant of her conception” comes wholly from Christ: she is “redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son”.136 The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person “in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” and chose her “in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love”.137
493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God “the All-Holy” ( Panagia ), and celebrate her as “free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature”.138 By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.
"Let it be done to me according to your word. . ."
494 At the announcement that she would give birth to “the Son of the Most High” without knowing man, by the power of the Holy Spirit, Mary responded with the obedience of faith, certain that “with God nothing will be impossible”: "Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be [done] to me according to your word."139 Thus, giving her consent to God’s word, Mary becomes the mother of Jesus. Espousing the divine will for salvation wholeheartedly, without a single sin to restrain her, she gave herself entirely to the person and to the work of her Son; she did so in order to serve the mystery of redemption with him and dependent on him, by God’s grace:140
https://www.vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p122a3p2.htm
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JJO said:
If God saw it just to make Our Lady’s conception immaculate, why couldn’t he do that for all or many other humans to help them in being preserved from sin?
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Adam and Eve were conceived without sin. And they both sinned.
 
I am but an echo of your thunder. Basically, what the OP is asking for, if I understand it correctly, might result in the loss of our free will. Since God is love and is huge on our freedom (so that we are free to love) , this plan runs counter to His Divine plan. He, being aware of all things for all time, has planned human existence in accord with that plan.

So, here we stand, sinful and sorrowful…
 
Our first parents were born without Original Sin, but they were responsible for the Fall. We could be preserved from sin as Mary was, but that wouldn’t make us immune from sin. We would be in Adam’s original state, and as we already established, he fell into sin.

God could have preserved the rest of us, and if He had, there would still be sin in the world, He would still need to come in the flesh and save us, and we would miss out on so much of what we know about Mary as the “prototype” and model for the Church.
 
As the Church teaches, Mary was preserved from original sin because it was “wholly fitting” in her special case as the Mother of God and new Eve.

However, for the rest of us, God has seen it fitting to have “consigned all men to disobedience, that he may have mercy upon all.” (Rom. 11:32). He wants us to come to Him for the gifts of salvation, to call upon Him, and to be born again. Like He did for Mary, He still gives us everything we need to obey the commandments and be saved, just at different times and in different ways. Just as in the parable of the workers in the vineyard, He calls each of us at different times and ways (cf. Matt 20).
 
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I never understood how one can avoid the problem of an infinite regression of ‘immaculateness’ ;
Our Lord was immaculately conceived
Our Lord’s mother was immaculately conceived
Our Lord’s mother’s mother was immaculately conceived
Our Lord’s mother’s mother’s mother was immaculately conceived
 
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Right.
Why/how can the infinite regression be avoided if it is necessary that Mary be immaculate in order for Jesus to be conceived in an immaculate womb?
 
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Lion_IRC said:
Why/how can the infinite regression be avoided if it is necessary that Mary be immaculate in order for Jesus to be conceived in an immaculate womb?
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Strictly speaking, I don’t think the Church teaches that Mary was immaculately conceived because it was necessary (i.e. she could not conceive and give birth to Christ). She was immaculately conceived for the honor of Christ, to be a fitting vessel for God Himself. The Ark of the Covenant, strictly speaking, didn’t need to be made of gold. Any box could have done the same function. It was gold because of the importance of what it carried. The same goes for Mary, the Ark of the New Covenant. Also, her conception being immaculate is not due to her parents. It was an act of God, and God, who did not require a human man to be conceived, did not need a human to be immaculately conceived so as to immaculately conceive.
 
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Fauken said:
She was immaculately conceived…
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…so that [reason]
…in order to [reason]
…because of [reason]

There does seem to be a good and righteous reason for Mary being so concieved.

Isn’t there also then, for the sake of consistency, a reason why the womb into which Mary was concieved should also be immaculate?
 
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Lion_IRC said:
Isn’t there also then, for the sake of consistency, a reason why the womb into which Mary was concieved to also be immaculate?
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I don’t think that St. Anne’s womb was immaculate. Then again, this beyond my knowledge of the Immaculate Conception, so it’s just my speculation.
 
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It was a special situation, God was becoming man and entering human history. Other things have occurred only once, like Exodus so I do not see an issue.
 
Perhaps Pelagianism can shed some light on this: Pelagius’ error was precisely the claim that men are not tainted by Original Sin, but only by bad example. While false, he does have a point: if we were conceived without sin we would still be scandalized by the bad example of others, most especially our parents, and sin would be all the more severe in those who fell from a state of Original Justice, because they had the ability to preserve themselves from all stain of sin and willfully rejected it.
 
I’m not sure that’s the answer? Our Lady still had free will. She merited much and is lauded much for her freely given fiat.
 
Fauken said:
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Lion_IRC:
Isn’t there also then, for the sake of consistency, a reason why the womb into which Mary was concieved to also be immaculate?
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I don’t think that St. Anne’s womb was immaculate. Then again, this beyond my knowledge of the Immaculate Conception, so it’s just my speculation.
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I have heard — and I know this isn’t worth two cents without a source — that some have said Our Lady was not conceived in the normal fashion, but that in some way, the affection between Joachim and Anna resulted in her conception without physical generation. Has anyone else heard this?
 
HomeschoolDad said:
I have heard — and I know this isn’t worth two cents without a source — that some have said Our Lady was not conceived in the normal fashion, but that in some way, the affection between Joachim and Anna resulted in her conception without physical generation. Has anyone else heard this?
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@HomeschoolDad
I’ve read that from bl. Anna Katherine Emmerick. But cannot discuss it here.
 
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Inbonum said:
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HomeschoolDad:
I have heard — and I know this isn’t worth two cents without a source — that some have said Our Lady was not conceived in the normal fashion, but that in some way, the affection between Joachim and Anna resulted in her conception without physical generation. Has anyone else heard this?
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@HomeschoolDad
I’ve read that from bl. Anna Katherine Emmerick. But cannot discuss it here.
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Okay, that’s where I heard it.

I assume you’re referring to non-discussion of unapproved private revelations. If so, I am entirely okay with following CAF rules.
 
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