PRmerger:
Right. No one should ever be proposing “God says so” as any apologia.
But therein lies the problem. If we both agree “God says so”, or some more complex and nuanced variant, isn’t the way to convince me of an objective moral standard, then the next step will be to pull God out, and replace it with Natural Law. And then I’ll respond much the same, so we reach an impasse.
So why would something as abstract as “Natural Law” be compelling to convince anyone of an objective moral standard, when an active Creator of the universe who brings all into being will not convince you? Why would morality coming from the source of existence itself NOT be compelling, but an abstraction like Natural Moral Law would be? I am genuinely puzzled. Perhaps you have a distinct bias against Omnibenevolent Creators?
I smell a deflection here.
I also suspect neither of those will convince you primarily because your “standard” for morality isn’t permitted, in principle, by your need to control your choices. It could be that this requirement for control leads to an unwillingness to be objective because you won’t allow morality to be an imposition from an external origin onto your behaviour or actions, from the get go. The source of your control must be from within your willingness, I suspect, which is why you have to default to morality is “subjective.”
I would argue that while ultimately your position is true because moral choices are, in fact, the moral responsibility of the agent. The problem, however, is if the moral agent is a defective moral agent their choices will be immoral and irresponsible, so the only way of righting the cart, so to speak, in that case is to impose morality from outside until the agent achieves some decent moral rectitude and becomes capable of correct moral choices.
This is the problem with insisting morality is purely subjective, however: it permits morally deficient and defective subjects to claim their morality is en par with the morality of certifiably good moral agents.
Is the morality of a murderer or rapist on equal standing with, say, the morality of Jesus or Gandhi? If not, how can you say morality is merely subjectively determined by the agent? If it is the rapist has the right to determine their own morality for themselves, and others have no right to interfere.
That can’t be the case, however, if we are to make any clear distinction between the morality of a rapist and the morality of a good person, and permit interfering with the actions of the rapist. The standard for morality has to be outside the defective and immoral agent. There has to be an objective standard independent of human subjects by which the morality of individual human subjects itself can be assessed.
It can still be subject based, but based upon an abstract subject, i.e., a good moral agent as an ideal to live up to worked out by moral debate and discussion, in much the same way that what makes
a good triangle is determined in light of an abstraction regarding what a triangle is, objectively and conceptually speaking.