J
Jacob50
Guest
It is written:
“To the woman he said, “I will greatly increase your pains in childbearing; with pain you will give birth to children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.””
I have been taught by some that the fact that a woman has pain when giving birth to a child, is due to original sin.
But I noticed that Genesis says “Greatly multiply (or increase) your pain”. Wouldn’t that suggest that the woman already was designed to have pain but in a lesser degree? I mean otherwise then the wording "multiply’ or “increase” makes no sense right?
I am really looking forward to an answer to this because, some people say that Mary didn’t have labor pains because she was free from original sin. But the argument wouldn’t make sense if the women were designed to have pain anyway (even if in a lesser degree).
“To the woman he said, “I will greatly increase your pains in childbearing; with pain you will give birth to children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.””
I have been taught by some that the fact that a woman has pain when giving birth to a child, is due to original sin.
But I noticed that Genesis says “Greatly multiply (or increase) your pain”. Wouldn’t that suggest that the woman already was designed to have pain but in a lesser degree? I mean otherwise then the wording "multiply’ or “increase” makes no sense right?
I am really looking forward to an answer to this because, some people say that Mary didn’t have labor pains because she was free from original sin. But the argument wouldn’t make sense if the women were designed to have pain anyway (even if in a lesser degree).