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MiserereMeiDei
Guest
Continuity doesn’t seem to have been a priority for a number of decades. Perhaps if those pesky trads
would have been quieter.
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You can never do a word-for-word translation from one language to the other.A while ago, in Italy, the changed the words to the Our Father prayer just a little. Instead of saying “Lead us not into temptation” They say “Do not let us fall into temptation” Because the first part hints that God would lead us into temptation, which he would NEVER do. So it makes sense, but, at the same time, it IS the Lord’s Prayer, taught to the apostles by Jesus himself. Do they have any right to change it? Any thoughts on this? Thank You!!!![]()
I wasn’t a fan because I think that within the older translations of the Lord’s Prayer IS the actual explanation of that clause of the Lord’s Prayer. To me, the updated verbiage actually brings MORE confusion rather than using what Christ taught and pointing people to what he was actually saying. Here is what I mean:A while ago, in Italy, the changed the words to the Our Father prayer just a little. Instead of saying “Lead us not into temptation” They say “Do not let us fall into temptation” Because the first part hints that God would lead us into temptation, which he would NEVER do. So it makes sense, but, at the same time, it IS the Lord’s Prayer, taught to the apostles by Jesus himself. Do they have any right to change it? Any thoughts on this? Thank You!!!![]()
I hear this explanation frequently, but this is a bad apologetic to follow for a number of reasons. First, there is no credible evidence that Matthew’s gospel comes from an Aramaic predecessor. Rather, most scholars would agree that Matthew’s gospel was originally written in the Greek. What this means is that what was written, was written with a Greek speaking audience in mind and the verbiage that was chosen, was chosen for a reason (to accurately convey what Jesus actually taught). The other issue with this whole line of thinking is that you are essentially saying the Holy Spirit who inspired the gospel to begin with didn’t know what He was doing and made a mistake in translation. That is problematic and is a quite dangerous apologetic to rest your hat on.Or when they wrote down what they heard in Aramaic into Greek in the first place …
It’s interesting you say this, because it is precisely one of the arguments that were made in favor of the French new translation. The theological explanations I read said that in all these cases, as well as in Jesus’ temptation, God actually does not leave us alone and stays in charge. The meaning of the 6th demand was understood as asking God to stay with us when we are tempted, instead of allowing us to give in to temptation.God does allow us to undergo temptation and testing. This is demonstrated throughout scripture. In other words, God is in charge of his creation.
I had not heard that reasoning given, but you are probably more plugged into this than I am. Personally I think rather than change the translation the Church’s job is to provide better catechesis. I just think the new translation adds to the confusion, personally. Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut.It’s interesting you say this, because it is precisely one of the arguments that were made in favor of the French new translation.
I believe this is the correct way to understand that passage. God does test us at times, and some of his testing may include temptations.No it’s not okay.
First of all, the Greek verb is bring. Not let, not allow, but bring. So the change violates Scripture right there.
Second the translation proceeds from a false assumption. God DOES sometimes lead us to places and situations that pose trials, tests, and temptations.
Most scholars consider it a later addition (Jerome’s Vulgate doesn’t include it). Western Catholics have historically not used it, though there isn’t anything objectionable with the doxology itself.Some say no, others say yes.
As do we, but the Church wisely separates it from the main body of the Lord’s Prayer with an embolism (Deliver us, O Lord…).AlNg:![]()
Most scholars consider it a later addition (Jerome’s Vulgate doesn’t include it). Western Catholics have historically not used it, though there isn’t anything objectionable with the doxology itself.Some say no, others say yes.
Many Protestants do use the doxology.
I think you need to re-read my comments because you are putting words in my mouth that I did not say. God does allow us to be tested, that much is clear from scripture as I demonstrated above. However, he is not the agent of temptation, sin is.Why would “but/yet/except” express contrast if the petition is “lead us not into temptation”? What contrast is there between “lead us not into temptation” and “deliver us from evil”? To me they seem to be in the same line.
Also, if you want to discuss the meaning within Scripture: if God leading someone to temptation is something that happens and is good within God’s Plan; then why Jesus prays for the Father to NOT lead us to temptation? Wouldn’t Jesus know that if that happens it’s God’s Will?
Then you agree that “lead us not into temptation” is not the best translation?he is not the agent of temptation
The fact that Koine Greek is itself almost certainly a translation of the oral tradition highlights the fact that scripture transmission and exegesis is messy, like all the rest of human life. And Modern English isn’t the definitive barometer of the meaning of scripture.People changed the words the moment they translated it from koine Greek.
Which is why Scripture can’t exist in a sola, self referential vacuum outside the living Tradition of the Catholic Church. (I know, a different thread)JulianN:![]()
Beat me to it by one minuteOr when they wrote down what they heard in Aramaic into Greek in the first place …
Yes, in order to avoid “changing the prayer that Jesus taught to His disciples,” you would have to take a time machine back to 28 A.D. or so, record the audio, and memorize it. As soon as there is translation from one language to another, there is the modification of words and meanings.
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