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Mickey3456987
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if jesus is God (nessecary being) how can he re-arrange himself into human being? isn’t he contingent then since necessary being can’t arrange in another form?
He didn’t “re-arrange” himself as human.if jesus is God (nessecary being) how can he re-arrange himself into human being? isn’t he contingent then since necessary being can’t arrange in another form?
The CCC says this(41 paragraphs) about the incarnation http://ccc.scborromeo.org.master.com/texis/master/search/?sufs=0&q=incarnation&xsubmit=Search&s=SS click on each paragraphif jesus is God (nessecary being) how can he re-arrange himself into human being? isn’t he contingent then since necessary being can’t arrange in another form?
He didn’t arrange himself into a human being. Rather, he united his nature to a created human nature under one person. In addition to being divine, Jesus had a human body and soul, a human mind and will.if jesus is God (nessecary being) how can he re-arrange himself into human being? isn’t he contingent then since necessary being can’t arrange in another form?
The infinite nature of God did not change. The person of God the Son took another nature, that of humanity. So, the Son has two natures, one is finite and human, and the other is infinite and divine.How does the Church explain the change from God to God on earth (while still being in heaven as well) if God is not able to change? It seems to me that placing Jesus on earth required some type of change?
Thanks.
Regarding the Incarnation, or the taking/assuming of flesh, this link provides some helpful info. Catholic Encyclopedia -The IncarnationHypostatic Union
A theological term used with reference to the Incarnation to express the revealed truth that in Christ one person subsists in two natures, the Divine and the human. Hypostasis means, literally, that which lies beneath as basis or foundation. Hence it came to be used by the Greek philosophers to denote reality as distinguished from appearances (Aristotle, “Mund.”, IV, 21). It occurs also in St. Paul’s Epistles (II Cor., ix, 4; xi, 17; Heb., i, 3:iii, 14), but not in the sense of person. Previous to the Council of Nicæa (325) hypostasis was synonymous with ousia , and even St. Augustine (De Trin., V, 8) avers that he sees no difference between them. The distinction in fact was brought about gradually in the course of the controversies to which the Christological heresies gave rise, and was definitively established by the Council of Chalcedon (451), which declared that in Christ the two natures, each retaining its own properties, are united in one subsistence and one person ( eis en prosopon kai mian hpostasin ) (Denzinger, ed. Bannwart, 148). They are not joined in a moral or accidental union (Nestorius), nor commingled (Eutyches), and nevertheless they are substantially united.
Because God is omniscient.How do you know this? How do know the manner in which God can and cannot manifest Himself? How do know what is and isn’t true of such a manifested God?
Yes he was. God is omniscient. Christ is God. Therefore Christ is omniscient.But Christ wasn’t.
That you are God.Would still know what?
First, define perfect, and second, demonstrate that I’m not perfect.
Christ did know that he was God. If he didn’t, he was either insane or an egotistical maniac.I think that it’s wrong to assume what Christ knew, and when He knew it. But perhaps you possess some wisdom that I don’t on this matter.