Is Jesus unchanging?

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if you understand that God is outside of time than he can interact with time without changing himself. God is constantly manifesting the burning bush, parting the red sea, etc.
If He is interacting inside time, then that part of Him which is inside time, and is doing the interacting, is changing.
you must understand that God is outside of our time.
Then God is not omnipresent? He is not here and now, because here and now is inside time. If your God is outside time, then He cannot be here and now inside time. This sounds more like the Gnostic Demiurge, where God resides changeless outside time, while the changing Demiurge acts inside time.
also acting doesn’t necessitate change, something can be constantly acting and never change. For example a spinning tire is constantly rotating, while yes there is change it that the act of spinning is not changing,
That example does not apply to God’s actions like parting the Red Sea. The Red Sea was/is not permanently parted. The parting was only temporary.
God is inside and outside of time at the same time
I have no problem with that. I can stand in England and Scotland at the same time, provided I am standing across the border. However, it does require that I have parts. My right foot is in Scotland and my left foot is in England. If God is both inside and outside time, then God has at least two parts: God-inside-time and God-outside-time. Since these two have opposed properties, like the location of my feet, they must be separate entities. We can then proceed to analyse these two separate entities separately. God-outside-time can be unchanging, while God-inside-time is changing. Of course, this analysis defeats the unity of God.
God is changing and unchanging at the same time (well human nature of Christ chaining and divine nature unchaining)
Then God is a compound entity, with at least two parts. I am not sure that Christians have a real problem with a compound God, given the idea of the Trinity.
These contradictions can never fully be resolved.
Which only goes to show that those beliefs have no secure logical foundation.

rossum
 
rossum you aren’t going to get it if you don’t understand that Christ has two natures in one person. Every single human person ever to live has one nature, while Christ has two, Human nature and Divine Nature. Because Christ has two natures we believe that Christ can have two things in him that doesn’t bring in the principle of non contradiction, an at the same time not making it to where Christ has a dual personality.
So, Christ is a compound of two natures, a changing human nature and an unchanging divine nature. So, the question becomes, does the compound Christ as a whole change? Yes it does. If one part of a compound entity changes, then the overall entity has changed.

For example, a baby is born in California, but not in Idaho. The population of California has changed, the population of Idaho has not changed. If you combine the two populations into the larger compound entity, the population of the USA, then that compound entity has changed because the population of California has increased by one. The non-change in Idaho is overridden. In a compound entity, change overcomes non-change.

Hence your compound Christ, a mixture of a changing human nature and an unchanging divine nature, must change overall. While part remains unchanged, the whole is changing because the whole contains a part that changes.

rossum
 
Rossum, the Incarnation is a mystery. No one can fully understand it. This needs to be remembered when discussing it.

However, your posts contained many errors. Hopefully correcting them will help to further your understanding.
We are back to:1. God does not change.
  1. Jesus is God.
  1. Jesus changed.The Arians solved the dilemma (trilemma?) by denying #2.
(Just for the record, that would still be a dilemma.)

Your argument is unsound. It should look something like this:
  1. The Divine Nature is immutable.
  2. Jesus is one Person with two natures, human and Divine.
  3. The human nature of Jesus changed.
Clearly, there is no contradiction here.
Then you have lost. If God is pure Act, then there is no separation between God and the Acts-of-God, as some here have proposed. In the time of Abraham God did not act to part the Red Sea. In the time of Moses God did act to part the Red Sea. In the time of David God did not act to part the Red Sea. God (as pure Act) changed from not-parting to parting, and changed a second time from parting to not-parting. If God acts, temporarily, in time then there are a minimum of two changes. God as pure Act must change, and the Bible tells us so.
Do you deny that God acted in time to part the Red Sea?
Firstly, you don’t understand what act and potency mean. See here:
(newadvent.org/cathen/01124a.htm)
Your ignorance of the meaning of the words leads you to false conclusions.

God is not the Red Sea. God is not the parting of the Red Sea. Thus there is no problem in saying that God parted the Red Sea. We mean that God caused the event, which is a change in the Red Sea, not in God.

Now, you may complain that to cause the event is to change, however in this you would be mistaken. God is the cause of all changes, as Aristotle says. However, Aristotle also proved that God is immutable. (In case you don’t understand what cause means, see: newadvent.org/cathen/03459a.htm) Perhaps Aristotle contradicted himself and it went unnoticed for thousands of years until you came along and brilliantly spotted the fallacy. Or maybe, just maybe, it is your reasoning that is fallacious and it would be better to admit that you are actually the one who “loses.” Should you wish to discuss whether the parting of the Red Sea contradicts the immutability of God, I suggest that you open a new thread on the topic.
“God is changing and unchanging at the same time (well human nature of Christ chaining and divine nature unchaining)”
Then God is a compound entity, with at least two parts. I am not sure that Christians have a real problem with a compound God, given the idea of the Trinity.
The parenthetical element is key (often, people say things in a short-hand sloppy way that is not to be taken literally. Frequently this is due to the limitations of our ability to think of God. Eg. (S. Th. III. 2. 7 ad 1) “This union is not really in God, but only in our way of thinking, for God is said to be united to a creature inasmuch as the creature is really united to God without any change in Him.”)

God is not a compound. Jesus is compound. (from S. Th. III. 2. 4)
“The Person or hypostasis of Christ may be viewed in two ways. First as it is in itself, and thus it is altogether simple, even as the Nature of the Word. Secondly, in the aspect of person or hypostasis to which it belongs to subsist in a nature; and thus the Person of Christ subsists in two natures. Hence though there is one subsisting being in Him, yet there are different aspects of subsistence, and hence He is said to be a composite person, insomuch as one being subsists in two.”

If you want to try to understand the Incarnation more, I would recommend that you read S. Th. III. 2. (newadvent.org/summa/4002.htm) Start a thread with any questions you have. However, if you really want to try to understand it more, you will need a better background in philosophy. I recommend you start with something like Ed Fesser’s Aquinas.
 
Your argument is unsound. It should look something like this:
  1. The Divine Nature is immutable.
  2. Jesus is one Person with two natures, human and Divine.
  3. The human nature of Jesus changed.
Then the answer to the question at the head of this thread is that Jesus is not unchanging. If one section of a compound entity changes, then the overall entity changes. Jesus is a compound of two natures, one unchanging and the other changing. Therefore the compound of the two is changing because one of its constituent components is changing.
We mean that God caused the event, which is a change in the Red Sea, not in God.
Let us analyse your “God caused the event”. If God causes the event, then the event is caused whenever God is present: IF cause THEN effect. However, you assert that God existed in the time of Abraham, when there was no effect, the Red Sea was not parted: IF (NOT effect) THEN (NOT cause). Are you saying the God did not exist in the time of Abraham? That is the logical implication of your post.

If a permanent unchanging God causes an effect X, then since the cause is always present, then the effect is also always present. It is only possible for the effect to be absent if the cause is also absent.

Hence God-as-parter can only be temporary. G-a-p did not exist in the time of Abraham, G-a-p existed in the time of Moses, and G-a-p did not exist in the time of David. Hence your God must have a temporary subsection which causes temporary effects. A permanent cause can only result in permanent effects. Scripture shows that God does cause temporary effects.
God is the cause of all changes, as Aristotle says.
I very much doubt that. Since when has Aristotle been Christian? Besides, I very much prefer Nagarjuna to Aristotle.
God is not a compound.
That greatly limits the possibilities for God if He is unchanging. He can never start anything (starting is a change) and He can never stop anything (stopping is a change). We are back to the revised Genesis:

On the first day, God said, “Let there be light,” and on the second day, God said, “Let there be light,” and on the third day, God said, “Let there be light,” and on the fourth day …

An unchanging, uncompound God can never stop doing exactly the same thing all the time and He can never start doing anything different. To me that seems a very long way from omnipotence.

rossum
 
I don’t have time to go through each of your examples. But it changes things when we think of God outside of time. The red sea doesn’t need to be eternally parted for it to be eternally parted for God. If God is outside of time than you can posit that God experiences all actualities at once. If God experiences all actualities at once than it is very reasonable to think that an action of God in time isn’t a change. This is because God who is outside of time isn’t bound by the same limitations of something inside of time.

The red sea which you used in criticism. For us the parting of the red sea was one moment in time for us it happened and than stopped happening. For God though who is outside of time and exists equally at every moment of time eternally experiences this as one eternal happening. Every action of God that happens in our reality is happening for all eternity in God’s nature.

I understand why it is so difficult to understand but you are looking at this in the wrong way I believe. You are taking a view based on our experience and trying to put it in God’s experience. This is problematic because God isn’t bound by time and exists outside of time.
 
God is One. Can there exist anything outside of God? and What are we told God is? Love. That is the substance of God and why you exist. It amazing to place your trust in the love of Christ, for he will make you a partaker of His substance
 
I very much doubt that. Since when has Aristotle been Christian?
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/metaphysics.12.xii.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/physics.8.viii.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/gener_corr.1.i.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/metaphysics.4.iv.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/metaphysics.9.ix.html

And on and on.
Besides, I very much prefer Nagarjuna to Aristotle.
I “much prefer” reason to subjective preferences. Besides, if you “very much doubt” that Aristotle said that then “I very much doubt” you have read much Aristotle. It seems you should do so before comparing them does it not?
Let us analyse your “God caused the event”. If God causes the event, then the event is caused whenever God is present: IF cause THEN effect. However, you assert that God existed in the time of Abraham, when there was no effect, the Red Sea was not parted: IF (NOT effect) THEN (NOT cause). Are you saying the God did not exist in the time of Abraham? That is the logical implication of your post.
That is not “the logical implication of [my] post.”

…because…

You have a mistaken notion of cause. Consider a fictional user RossumPrime in discussion:Andrew: The sun exists. The sun causes trees to grow.
Rossum: A causes B means that IF A THEN B.
This implies IF (NOT A) THEN (NOT B). But not all trees grow. Therefore the sun does not exist.
That simply is not what cause means.

Thus your argument is unsound.
That greatly limits the possibilities for God if He is unchanging.
No it doesn’t. You are simply mistaken. Aristotle and the best of the worlds philosophers for thousands of years recognized this.
Then the answer to the question at the head of this thread is that Jesus is not unchanging. If one section of a compound entity changes, then the overall entity changes. Jesus is a compound of two natures, one unchanging and the other changing. Therefore the compound of the two is changing because one of its constituent components is changing.
First, let’s just look at your claim that “If one section of a compound entity changes, then the overall entity changes.”

I’m rather dubious on this. Consider:

Let A denote the set of real numbers. Let A’ denote the set obtained by multiplying each member of A by 100. An entity changed. In fact, infinitely many entities changed. However A is still isomorphic to A’.

However, I think I understand what you mean.

This still does not pose a problem, because when we predicate something of Jesus, “it must be borne in mind that in a proposition in which something is predicated of another, we must not merely consider what the predicate is predicated of, but also the reason of its being predicated.” (dhspriory.org/thomas/english/summa/TP/TP016.html#TPQ16A4THEP1)
 
Quote from AndrewW94

AndrewW94
God is the cause of all changes, as Aristotle says.

Reply from rossum

rossum

I very much doubt that. Since when has Aristotle been Christian?

AndrewW94 never said Aristotle was a “Christian”. This seemed like a straw-man to me.

Then following was this . . .

Quote fromAndrewW94

classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/me…cs.12.xii.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/physics.8.viii.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/gener_corr.1.i.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/metaphysics.4.iv.html
classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/metaphysics.9.ix.html

And on and on.

Rossum. You have a lot of arguments against your position/ideas that you have not yet answered on this thread.

An OBVIOUS one is your assumption that God is within time when you have been told otherwise. Or you pretending you have an understanding that you know what it is like to be outside of time, etc. and apply temporal philosophies to the Eternal.

It seems to me that you are denying an uncaused cause (do I have that correct?).

If not WHAT or WHO is your “uncaused cause”? What has “always been” rossum? And what is the “uncaused cause”? WHAT or WHO “is, was, and always will be” who is outside of time and space and created matter rossum?

But an even more obvious unanswered issue of yours is your correction of AndrewW94 concerning Aristotle.

Quote from rossum (RE AndrewW94 statement on Aristotle)

I very much doubt that.

You need to address you telling AndrewW94 he was wrong on Aristotle . . . . when he evidently is correct (you gave no citation, he gave five of them).

You either need to address this with a correction or an apology to AndrewW94 before you go on here (otherwise your credibility gap will continue to widen).

You flippantly corrected him on Aristotle apparently without doing your homework (AndrewW94 apparently DID do his homework [see his citations of Aristotle]).

He rapidly gave 5 citations allegedly rebutting your assertion. What are you going to do with that situation?

What other assertions here are you giving in this “flippant” fashion? Or are you going to try to tell me you read Aristotle before coming to your conclusions on Aristotle’s philosophy (If you did that, then why didn’t you just cite it when you “corrected” AndrewW94? He seemed to do that with ease regarding your position)?

God bless.

Cathoholic
 
God is the cause of all changes, as Aristotle says.
I very much doubt that. Since when has Aristotle been Christian?

Someone may have said this by now, but “Christians” have no lock on belief in God.

ICXC NIKA.
 
I might be missing something, but why does doing an action change the one doing it, if such actions are within that person’s nature?

I mean, if you wiggle your hands, that does not change you, because hand wiggling is an ability that lies within the nature of a human being. You are a “being with hands that can wiggle.”

Likewise, actions such as creation and sea-partings lie within the nature of God. He is eternally the “God who will part/ once parted the Red Sea at time T.”

Unlike ourselves, God is not bound by time, although our language is.

ICXC NIKA
 
Thanks GE

You summed up everyone rebuttal to Rossum most effectively. I guarantee he won’t accept it because he is hostage to his own intellect and it prevents any deposit of faith whatsoever.

I don’t understand his making such a big deal of a “changing Jesus” when things like he Trinity are so much harder to accept from a standpoint of human understanding.

Part of me feels like this entire thread has been a complete waste of everyone’s time but that’s what we get for trying to convince one more person that God is Love and deeply desires calling all to his name. He refuses no one and Rossum will someday accept the truth because he is persistent and has many people praying for him.

Thanks again for putting the idea out there so effectively.

JA
 
Thanks GE

You summed up everyone rebuttal to Rossum most effectively. I guarantee he won’t accept it because he is hostage to his own intellect and it prevents any deposit of faith whatsoever.

I don’t understand his making such a big deal of a “changing Jesus” when things like he Trinity are so much harder to accept from a standpoint of human understanding.

Part of me feels like this entire thread has been a complete waste of everyone’s time but that’s what we get for trying to convince one more person that God is Love and deeply desires calling all to his name. He refuses no one and Rossum will someday accept the truth because he is persistent and has many people praying for him.

Thanks again for putting the idea out there so effectively.

JA
YVW mon ami.

I don’t think it’s intellect that he is hostage to, just committed to previously held ideas.

In all fairness, we all have that.

God Bless, ICXC NIKA
 
God is One. Can there exist anything outside of God? and What are we told God is? Love. That is the substance of God and why you exist. It amazing to place your trust in the love of Christ, for he will make you a partaker of His substance
Can there be anything outside of God? How about evil. That might be a possibility.

You have to be careful when saying we will be made a partaker in His substance. We will not be the same as God but participate in His life. There is a difference.
 
Aristotle died in 322 BCE. Please provide evidence that Aristotle was a Christian and that the First Cause he proposed was triune and identical to the YHWH of the Jewish scriptures.
I “much prefer” reason to subjective preferences.
Nagarjuna has a number of excellent arguments against “substance”, indeed against all reification. To start with, does everything that exists have “substance”? Does “substance” exist? How do you avoid an infinite regress? How much Nagarjuna have you read?
That is not “the logical implication of [my] post.”
It is in pure symbolic logic. A → B is the standard logical implication. ~B → ~A is the standard reversal of that implication.
That simply is not what cause means.
Then what does it mean?
No it doesn’t. You are simply mistaken. Aristotle and the best of the worlds philosophers for thousands of years recognized this.
I would place Nagarjuna higher than Aristotle. His works were not translated into Western languages until the twentieth century so you comparison is not valid, since many of those making the comparison had never read Nargajuna.
I’m rather dubious on this. Consider:
Let A denote the set of real numbers. Let A’ denote the set obtained by multiplying each member of A by 100. An entity changed. In fact, infinitely many entities changed. However A is still isomorphic to A’.
An excellent point. My initial response is that the real numbers are mental constructs rather than existent constructs. You cannot give me 1.629475202, you can merely describe it to me. In that sense the real numbers are reified entities rather than existent entities. Thank you for the correction, my argument only applies to existent entities rather than to reified entities.
This still does not pose a problem, because when we predicate something of Jesus, “it must be borne in mind that in a proposition in which something is predicated of another, we must not merely consider what the predicate is predicated of, but also the reason of its being predicated.” (dhspriory.org/thomas/english/summa/TP/TP016.html#TPQ16A4THEP1)
This does not answer my question. How did God move the molecules of water in the Red Sea to part it? Was it one of the four known physical forces? Was it a fifth spiritual force? Either way that force was turned on inside time (a change) and was turned off inside time (a second change). Were those changes uncaused? If they were then God was not involved, which is contrary to scripture. If those changes were caused, then the cause itself had to arise and cease within time. How can God act within time without Himself acting within time?

rossum
 
I very much doubt that. Since when has Aristotle been Christian?

AndrewW94 never said Aristotle was a “Christian”. This seemed like a straw-man to me.
My point was that whatever entity Aristotle was referring to was not the Christian God. Was Aristotle’s entity triune? If not, then that entity was not the triune Christian God.
An OBVIOUS one is your assumption that God is within time when you have been told otherwise.
God was acting within time, the Bible states that clearly. How can God act within time without being within time? I have been told many things, both here and elsewhere; not all of them are true.
Or you pretending you have an understanding that you know what it is like to be outside of time, etc. and apply temporal philosophies to the Eternal.
The parting of the Red Sea was not eternal and it was not outside time. It is that, and its cause, that I am looking at. Scripture says that God parted the Sea, i.e. He was the cause of the parting, and that cause acted within time. An effect within time has a cause within time. Hence at lest a part of God had to act within time.
It seems to me that you are denying an uncaused cause (do I have that correct?).
Correct. A cause cannot be a cause unless there is also an effect. There can be no “creator of the universe” until there is actually a universe. Our current universe is about 13.5 billion years old. Therefore we can say that there was no “creator of the universe” 20 billion years ago.

Two strangers are talking at a party:

“What do you do?”

“I’m a creator.”

“And what do you create?”

“I create… universes.”

“Wow! And how many universes have you created?”

“Erm… well…” he shuffles his feet and looks embarrassed, “none actually.”

“Oh my, is that the time. Sorry, I have to rush.”

If there is no creation then there can be no creator, and vice versa. The two are mutually conditioning.

rossum
 
I might be missing something, but why does doing an action change the one doing it, if such actions are within that person’s nature?
First, I deny the existence of the sort of reified “nature” that you are assuming. Second, performing an action changes the actor. There is a real change from a mother-to-be who gives birth and becomes a mother.
I mean, if you wiggle your hands, that does not change you, because hand wiggling is an ability that lies within the nature of a human being. You are a “being with hands that can wiggle.”
You have expended energy to operate your muscles so you are marginally hungrier than you were. You joints have moved and so are slightly more worn than they were before. The levels of ATP in the relevant muscles have changed. Various nerves in both your brain and body have fired, and are expending more energy preparing themselves to carry the next nerve impulse. You have burned up some of the oxygen carried in your blood, which will need to be replenished from your lungs. If I knew more biology I would be able to describe more changes.
Likewise, actions such as creation and sea-partings lie within the nature of God. He is eternally the “God who will part/ once parted the Red Sea at time T.”
That I will not accept. There is a difference between “will part” and “once parted”; you also omitted “is parting”. There is a difference between “mother-to-be” and “mother”. One must be pregnant, the other does not have to. One has given birth, the other may not have.

You cannot elide over the change by combining two different things.
Unlike ourselves, God is not bound by time, although our language is.
And what is the Bible written in?

rossum
 
Aristotle died in 322 BCE. Please provide evidence that Aristotle was a Christian and that the First Cause he proposed was triune and identical to the YHWH of the Jewish scriptures.
This is a straw man fallacy, as Cathoholic pointed out. Aristotle was not Christian and no one said he was Christian. What I said, was that Aristotle thought God is Pure Act, immutable, omnipotent, etc. He also thought that God is the ultimate cause of all change. *** This is not inconsistent.*** (If you need to refresh your memory and see that this is in fact what I said, then read 63 again).

Do you think that things exist?
Do you think that things change?

Nagarjuna has a number of excellent arguments against “substance”, indeed against all reification. To start with, does everything that exists have “substance”? Does “substance” exist? How do you avoid an infinite regress?
You are going way, way, way off topic. Start a new thread in the philosophy forum and I’ll discuss that with you.
How much Nagarjuna have you read?
For the purposes of this discussion, let’s say none. However, I didn’t imply that I had. Stating that you prefer chocolate ice cream to vanilla ice cream implies that you have tried both. Based on your statements about Aristotle, I am quite certain that you do not have any meaningful acquaintance with his writings.
It is in pure symbolic logic. A → B is the standard logical implication. ~B → ~A is the standard reversal of that implication.
**First, it’s called the contrapositive, not the “reversal.”

Second, I that’s not the “standard logical implication.” I have six books on symbolic logic on my desk, and some more on the shelf right next to me. This is a material implication.

Third, it’s not “pure symbolic logic.” The part I was objecting to was your symbolization of “A caused B.” If you read my post, you will see that I stated that “this is not what cause means.” Furthermore, I gave a counter example.**
Then what does it mean?
Fortunately, I anticipated your difficulty way back in post 63. You promptly replied. I hope you are paying attention to what I write.

I quote it here for your convenience:
(In case you don’t understand what cause means, see: newadvent.org/cathen/03459a.htm)
An excellent point. My initial response is that the real numbers are mental constructs rather than existent constructs. You cannot give me 1.629475202, you can merely describe it to me. In that sense the real numbers are reified entities rather than existent entities. Thank you for the correction, my argument only applies to existent entities rather than to reified entities.
Well you see, here’s the problem. I want a proof, not just your claim that if any part of a compound entity changes, the entity changes. I’ll agree that if the whole changes, then a part must change, but I’m not sure about saying that if a part changes, then the whole must change. Do you have a proof?

However, I think I can provide a similar, but *much *better argument for you:
“If part of a compound admits of some potency, then the whole admits of some potency.
Jesus’s human nature admits of potency.
Therefore, Jesus admits of potency.”

My explanation above still holds. (quote below)
This still does not pose a problem, because when we predicate something of Jesus, “it must be borne in mind that in a proposition in which something is predicated of another, we must not merely consider what the predicate is predicated of, but also the reason of its being predicated.” (dhspriory.org/thomas/english/…l#TPQ16A4THEP1)
We say Jesus is immutable because the Divine Nature is immutable.
We say Jesus changed because His human nature changed.

This does not answer my question. … How can God act within time without Himself acting within time?
First, as others say, God is outside of time.
Second, as I keep trying to get through to you, God causing things is not a contradiction. This was the whole point of my bringing up Aristotle. I never said he was Christian, I said that he taught God is immutable and that God is the Uncaused Cause. I provided ample evidence to back up my point.
I would place Nagarjuna higher than Aristotle. His works were not translated into Western languages until the twentieth century so you comparison is not valid, since many of those making the comparison had never read Nargajuna.
I am not comparing Aristotle to Nargajuna. As I happily admit, I’m not well read in Naragajuna. I’m saying that you come across as quite foolish when you claim that it is not possible for me to say that God is immutable and that God is a cause.

However, this is not the subject of the thread. If you want to discuss the possibility of God causing things in time, and you are a glutton for punishment, go start a thread in the philosophy forum.
 
Rossum. You said in post 64 . . .
Since when has Aristotle been Christian?
Then you stated in post 74:
My point was that whatever entity Aristotle was referring to was not the Christian God.
But the evidence suggests that wasn’t your point rossum.

Why? Because you repeated the same erroneous challenge in your post 75.
Was Aristotle’s entity triune? If not, then that entity was not the triune Christian God.
Please provide evidence that Aristotle was a Christian . . .
rossum. You are doubling-down on your straw man (“tripling-down” actually).
Please provide evidence that Aristotle was a Christian . . .
Nobody said such a thing here rossum . . . NOBODY here . . . . not one person here on this thread . . . said that. NOBODY (except you falsely accusing others of asserting this).

PS please tell me how you define “reification” too.
 
This is a straw man fallacy, as Cathoholic pointed out. Aristotle was not Christian and no one said he was Christian. What I said, was that Aristotle thought God is Pure Act, immutable, omnipotent, etc. He also thought that God is the ultimate cause of all change.
How can “Pure Act” have a son? How can “Pure Act” exist without acting? How could “Pure Act” exist before the universe began? How can the immutable (which does not change) act in any way, since action requires change. Each action has a start, a duration and an end. The immutable can never start an action and can never end an action, at most it can sustain an action, and that action itself becomes immutable since its cause is also immutable.
Do you think that things exist?
Do you think that things change?
Things exist, but the “essence” many see behind things does not exist. It is a mirage constructed by our minds. It is important to distinguish between constructs in our minds, and things as they exist in the world. In our minds we can see water in a mirage. In the real world there is no water. The illusion of “substance” or “essence” behind reality has as much substance as the water in a mirage:

The emptiness of emptiness is the fact that not even emptiness exists ultimately, that it is also dependent, conventional, nominal, and in the end it is just the everydayness of the everyday. Penetrating to the depths of being, we find ourselves back on the surface of things and so discover that there is nothing, after all, beneath those deceptive surfaces. Moreover, what is deceptive about them is simply the fact that we assume ontological depth lurking just beneath.

– Jay Garfield, “Empty words, Buddhist philosophy and cross-cultural interpretation.” OUP 2002.

Things do change; everything changes. In Buddhism one of the Three Marks, that apply to everything, is change.
You are going way, way, way off topic.
If you are going to discuss essences and Prime Movers then it is not off topic.
For the purposes of this discussion, let’s say none.
Then you are at a disadvantage. Nagarjuna rejects a number of the standard assumptions of Western philosophy; I am also challenging those assumptions, and so many of my arguments will appear unusual.
Well you see, here’s the problem. I want a proof, not just your claim that if any part of a compound entity changes, the entity changes. I’ll agree that if the whole changes, then a part must change, but I’m not sure about saying that if a part changes, then the whole must change. Do you have a proof?
Change is difference. Start with a compound entity: {A, B} composed of two parts. Now change one part, but not the other: {A, B} → {A, B’}. B has changed to B’ while A has remained unchanged. Is it correct to write {A, B} = {A, B’}? If and only if B = B’ can we say they are equal. However, if B = B’ then there has been no change, which gives a contradiction. If B =/= B’ then {A, B} =/= {A, B’}
My explanation above still holds. (quote below)
We say Jesus is immutable because the Divine Nature is immutable.
We say Jesus changed because His human nature changed.
Then there are two different Jesuses. One thing cannot both change and not change. Jesus(Divine) does not change. Jesus(Human) does change. Hence Jesus(D) =/= Jesus(H). Thus Jesus(H) and Jesus(D) are different, and we can treat them separately. If Jesus(D) does not change, then Jesus(D) cannot act. Jesus(H) can act, but is not divine. That explains the human actions of Jesus, but fails to explain His miracles. Jesus(H) is human, and humans cannot miraculously change water into wine. Jesus(D) is divine, but cannot change and hence cannot act.
First, as others say, God is outside of time.
Is Jesus(D) outside time? Was Jesus(D & H) inside time?
Second, as I keep trying to get through to you, God causing things is not a contradiction.
I have no problem with God causing things. I do have a problem with an unchanging God causing things. It is the “unchanging” that is the problem. Any action in time requires a before, a during, and an after. That is two changes: before → during and during → after. The unchanging is forever trapped in one of the three stages.
This was the whole point of my bringing up Aristotle. I never said he was Christian, I said that he taught God is immutable and that God is the Uncaused Cause. I provided ample evidence to back up my point.
And my point is that Aristotle’s God is not the Christian God. What is said of one in not necessarily true of the other.
However, this is not the subject of the thread. If you want to discuss the possibility of God causing things in time, and you are a glutton for punishment, go start a thread in the philosophy forum.
The subject of this thread is “Is Jesus unchanging?” Everyone appears to agree that Jesus(H) changes in time. It is the divine element in Jesus, Jesus(D), that is the focus of discussion. The question then becomes, “Is Jesus(D) unchanging?” If Jesus is God then the question is equivalent to “Is God unchanging?” The thrust of my argument is that the unchanging is incapable of causing any temporary effects. At best it can cause permanent (i.e. unchanging) effects.

rossum
 
It almost sounds like you don’t read my posts.

I quote again from post #63:
Firstly, you don’t understand what act and potency mean. See here:
(newadvent.org/cathen/01124a.htm)
How can “Pure Act” have a son? How can…
This frantic scrambling around to different questions is off topic. It appears that having your errors exposed, you simply drop the subject, without acknowledging that you are/were mistaken. You then start spewing out new objections. What you need, my friend, is more thinking and less talking [writing].
If you are going to discuss essences and Prime Movers then it is not off topic.
My understanding of off topic is that something is not important to answering the OP’s question. Since he obviously thinks that God exists, he is not asking about your inconsistent metaphysics. He’s asking about the Incarnation. I brought up Aristotle, to refresh your memory again, not because I thought Aristotle was Christian, but because he held that God is immutable and that God is the Uncaused Cause. Rather than facing up to the fact that this is consistent, you bring out straw man arguments claiming I said Aristotle is Christian. This is pathetic.

You also claim that Aristotle is wrong. This is fine, but I meant it to be a short side note that supported my other claims about the topic/rebutted your claim about the Red Sea. If you want to change the topic of the thread to a discussion of God as Pure Act and as Unmoved Mover, I’m fine with that; however, it seems like a better idea for you to present your “number of excellent arguments” on their own thread.
… One thing cannot both change and not change.
Again, since you seem to forget post 55:
Rossum, this is bogus. First, the usual statement of the principle of non-contradiction is that A and not-A cannot both be true at the same time and in the same way. You forgot that last part.
Now you are forgetting even more of it.
And my point is that Aristotle’s God is not the Christian God…
More** straw man fallacies**. No one said that Aristotle’s conception of God is the Christian conception of God. Nor that what is said of one is necessarily true of the other. I said that Aristotle taught that God is immutable and that God is the Uncaused Cause. I did not say “as is the Christian conception of God.” My point was (and is) that you looked (and look) foolish saying that if God is immutable then He cannot Cause anything. Fortunately, you seem to be leaving the straw man fallacy in favor of actual arguments. I hope this continues.

As regards your quote from James Garfield, as Dilbert would say: “I’m pretty sure that doesn’t mean anything.” However, I’m loath to turn this into a thread about Nominalism. If you start a thread on that topic in the philosophy forum, I’ll be happy to discuss it with you.
Is Jesus(D) outside time? …
I don’t really like phrasing things like that. You must understand that our language is limited in it’s ability to describe God. I would like to say something like: “The Divine Essence is eternal.” “Jesus’ human nature changed.”
Then you are at a disadvantage…
It’s unclear whether you mean I am at a disadvantage as compared to what I would be at if I had read Nagarjuna. I’ll accept that. If you mean I am at a disadvantage compared to you, I claim that your lack of training in logic is a much worse problem than a lack of familiarity with Nagarjuna. If you want, I think it would help you if you tried studying logic, at least at a very basic level. A free online book that I have heard good things about is here: tellerprimer.ucdavis.edu/pdf/ .

QUOTE:Change is difference. Start with a compound entity: {A, B} composed of two parts. Now change one part, but not the other: {A, B} → {A, B’}. B has changed to B’ while A has remained unchanged. Is it correct to write {A, B} = {A, B’}? If and only if B = B’ can we say they are equal. However, if B = B’ then there has been no change, which gives a contradiction. If B =/= B’ then {A, B} =/= {A, B’}
It doesn’t look like you know how to do proofs in symbollic logic. Perhaps you would have better luck doing it more informally? There are too many errors to list them all, but to start with:

“Change is difference.” That’s a new and very weird definition. Informally, I’d say it is “becoming different”.

You need to explain what A and B are. Let’s say we’re using a first order system. Do you mean that they are formulas? Variables? Predicate symbols?

An example of an error:
**Let’s say that A = B != EMPTY_SET. Then {A, B} is isomorphic to {A}. Now, let B’ = EMPTY_SET. B’ != B. Yet {A, B’} = {A, B}. **(I use != to represent NOT_EQUAL)

There are many more issues, depending on the above, but as I said, there are too many to expect me to list them all. As a tip, remember that your argument has to exclude my counter example from post 67.

I’m actually inclined to agree with you as regards physical entities, but I don’t like just accepting things without proof. In this light, I recommend that you avoid sets and mathematics and perhaps try an informal argument about physical entities. You don’t seem to be well acquainted with mathematical proofs and you would, as I said above, need to develop an argument that excludes my counter example (and the infinitely many other obvious ones. Uncountably infinite to be more exact :D.)
The thrust of my argument is that the unchanging is incapable of causing any temporary effects.
That’s kind of like calling air the meat of swiss cheese. I don’t want “many excellent arguments.” I want one *sound *argument (of course more is fine if you have extra time). I’ll be waiting.
 
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