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I still have the same question. (3 posts up). Anyone can answer.
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From what I gather, if it were truly a de fide teaching, there is no way to change it into something else. It could develop or be clarified but not denied.I thought that this de fide teaching has been changed and that the new de fide teaching is that there is hope that an unbaptized infant can go to heaven?
ANDIn response, what I meant was the Orthodox Church truly (from their perspective) claim to be the church founded by Christ.
For clarification, that quote was from youWhen you wrote
"they truly claim to be, and have pretty strong arguments . Sure Peter set up the See of Rome, but did he not also set up the See of Antioch first?"
can you give references for the argument, properly referenced?
May I suggestAs for their pretty strong arguments, I would suggest asking somebody far more learned than me in their (EOC) traditions (as I am RC), after all you and I could make these arguments all day long until we’re blue in the face and at the end of the day, it is a matter of belief and opinion.
Re: the Creed and the filioqueWhat I would point to, is an ecumenical council (which I believe ecumenical council‘s are considered infallible by the Roman church to this day correct?) approved of by the then current pope, saying let anybody who changes the creed be anathema, Yet this is exactly what a later pope done (Filioque) and that tradition (error maybe, idk) carries on to this day. So the question becomes is the pope and the ecumenical council together correct?
Or was the later pope correct?
Who is correct on this matter and who is infallible or are both infallible because they sure seem to be conflicting of one another.
Did Peter leave himself? OR did the others leave Peter?Also when we look at the great schism, the four other ancient see’s distanced themselves from Rome.
Or was it Rome that distanced themselves from the four other ancient see’s?
Re: Schism , definitionAs far as my questioning of why the patriarchs of Antioch shouldn’t be considered the successors of Peter was just my own musings and pointing out that Peter had set up other see’s, which seems non-relevant to RC’s & (somewhat?) relevant to EO.
What you say here though really just dodges the point that I brought up, an ecumenical council (Council of Ephesus) approved by the pope of Rome (infallibly?) is totally ignored (Canon VII) by a later pope with the insertion of the Filioque (and the son), are you claiming that adding the Filioque does not change the creed? Cause it sure seems like it does.Re: the Creed and the filioque
Said simply, "proceeds from" the Father and the Son
Dual procession of the Holy Spirit is correct, dual source is heretical.
Said another way
Dual procession ≠ dual source
As JPII explains
Greek vs Latin expression of proceeds https://www.ewtn.com/catholicism/library/greek-and-latin-traditions-regarding-the-procession-of-the-holy-spirit-2349
As in
"Deum de Deo, Lumen de lumine, Deum verum de Deo vero" = God from God, Light from Light, true God of true God.
Keep in mind, there are 21 ecumenical councils of the Catholic Church.steve-b:
What you say here though really just dodges the point that I brought up, an ecumenical council (Council of Ephesus) approved by the pope of Rome (infallibly?) is totally ignored (Canon VII) by a later pope with the insertion of the Filioque (and the son), are you claiming that adding the Filioque does not change the creed? Cause it sure seems like it does.Re: the Creed and the filioque
Said simply, "proceeds from" the Father and the Son
Dual procession of the Holy Spirit is correct, dual source is heretical.
Said another way
Dual procession ≠ dual source
As JPII explains
Greek vs Latin expression of proceeds https://www.ewtn.com/catholicism/library/greek-and-latin-traditions-regarding-the-procession-of-the-holy-spirit-2349
As in
"Deum de Deo, Lumen de lumine, Deum verum de Deo vero" = God from God, Light from Light, true God of true God.
If you wish to dance around the point that’s fine but either one pope was infallibly correct or the other pope was infallibly correct not both can be so when they contradict each other.
SSPX refuses to submit to the Roman Pontiff and still they are not in schism.2089 schism is the refusal of submission to the Roman Pontiff or of communion with the members of the Church subject to him."
Pope Benedict XVI made a change Canon Law and the SSPX - Canon Law Made EasyCanon Law Made Easysteve-b:
SSPX refuses to submit to the Roman Pontiff and still they are not in schism.2089 schism is the refusal of submission to the Roman Pontiff or of communion with the members of the Church subject to him."
From the looks of it, you didn’t open the link I provided at this moment in time.I’m not arguing that there’s either 7 or 21 ecumenical council‘s, what I’m arguing is that an infallible teaching cannot be changed otherwise it wouldn’t be infallible, yet here we have a case where it seemingly was.
I don’t wish to argue and as I said before this argument can go on until we’re both blue in the face.
Point being you haven’t given a straight up answer to the point brought up.
And trust me I’ve been looking for the answer to this for years, there is no straight up answer.
2 Popes infallibly contradict each other how do you answer that?
Everything that you have brought up, every point about it and everything that I’ve ever read about it only tries to reconcile the fact that the Filioque is in the creed and that perhaps, maybe, that this is what was always believed (even though we had to change creed to state that it is what we always believed), at the end of the day the fact remains, neither you, nor I, nor anybody else can reconcile the fact the that these 2 Popes made infallible declarations that contradict each other.
Re: children, who die and no baptism, … Best we can do, is hope for Jesus to save them.This is probably the best answer to his question.
I think that there have been a few changes in teachings. I am not sure if they were “infallible” or not. I read somewhere that there are few theologians who suggest that the concept of infallibility be reconsidered.…I’m arguing is that an infallible teaching cannot be changed otherwise it wouldn’t be infallible, yet here we have a case where it seemingly was.
I’m Ukrainian Greek Catholic and I admit that’s one thing I do not like - delaying Baptism for 40 days. I was baptized 14+ days after I was born. St. Padre Pio was baptized the day he was born, and he later said that it was one of the greatest (or the greatest - don’t remember exactly) grace(s) that God gave him.We do not Baptize freshly born babies, but 40 day old (or more) babies…
But did I?I think you missed the main thrust of the argument, which was that an Ecumenical Council can modify a former Ecumencial Council’s disciplinary edicts.
Truly infallible teaching cannot change as in they cannot be later denied, but they can change in the sense that they develop: a calf can become a cow, but a calf cannot become a fish. They can be clarified. However, disciplines can change in such a way: they are not important teaching but rather tell us how to act at least for a certain time, and what is prudent for one time is not prudent at another.I think that there have been a few changes in teachings. I am not sure if they were “infallible” or not. I read somewhere that there are few theologians who suggest that the concept of infallibility be reconsidered.