C
cathopologist
Guest
I wouldn’t go as far as claiming Islam is the religion of Satan, but it does have dubious origins.
- Status
F
Formosus
Guest
Yet the original christians were aramaic speaking jews. Also to mention the Aramean(Syriac) people and maronites who became Christians. There clearly wasn’t an ancient consensus on what the word ment.Jesus most likely spoke Aramaic. Not Hebrew. What do you think his name is in Aramaic?
His title in Aramaic is “Messiah.” The Hebrew equivalent is 'Mashiach," I believe. The Arabic equivalent is “Masih.”
And in fact, the Jews and the Muslims have the same concept of what it means. It’s the Christians who have a different view.
About the name Muhammad–>there’s only 1 “h” and 2 "m"s.
R
rad
Guest
A
abucs
Guest
The Surah 5:27-32 which was taken from a Rabbi’s “commentary” on the torah a few hundred years earlier is very strong proof that the Koran is made up from divergent sources.
truthnet.org/islam/Islam-Bible/6AnsweringIsalm/index.htm
answering-islam.org/Nehls/Ask/sources.html
oslab.snu.ac.kr/os/evolution/%BF%AA%BB%E7/Why%20I%20am%20not%20a%20Muslim.htm
Chapter 4.
scribd.com/doc/6387647/The-Truth-About-Muhammad-Robert-Spencer
answering-islam.org/Responses/Saifullah/yahya_av.htm
truthnet.org/islam/Islam-Bible/6AnsweringIsalm/index.htm
answering-islam.org/Nehls/Ask/sources.html
oslab.snu.ac.kr/os/evolution/%BF%AA%BB%E7/Why%20I%20am%20not%20a%20Muslim.htm
Chapter 4.
scribd.com/doc/6387647/The-Truth-About-Muhammad-Robert-Spencer
answering-islam.org/Responses/Saifullah/yahya_av.htm
R
Reuben_J
Guest
I thought that the Quran is influenced by Gnosticism. I thought the infant Jesus story is derived somehow from the infancy gospel of Thomas. I cannot separate Mohammad from the Quran very much and hence my statement. I’d rather not say all this but nevertheless that how I think about it.What do mean by that…
R
ralphinal
Guest
Sister Amy,Jesus most likely spoke Aramaic. Not Hebrew. What do you think his name is in Aramaic?
His title in Aramaic is “Messiah.” The Hebrew equivalent is 'Mashiach," I believe. The Arabic equivalent is “Masih.”
And in fact, the Jews and the Muslims have the same concept of what it means. It’s the Christians who have a different view.
About the name Muhammad–>there’s only 1 “h” and 2 "m"s.
What does it mean in Islam to be the Messiah?
I know the basics for the Jews. I understand fully what it means to Christians. I want to see Islam’s take on it.
M
Muslim_Woman
Guest
Salaam/peace
holy Quran , Chapter Women , verse 172 ( 4: 172 )
God says : Christ will never be proud to reject to be a slave to God , nor the angels who are near ( to God )…
holy Quran , Chapter Women , verse 172 ( 4: 172 )
I
inJESUS
Guest
there are many passages in the Quran taken from various sources, including Gnostic sources and about 6 to 7 apocryphic works of various eras(the ones i found so far). It’d be difficult to link Muhammad to one single heretic group but the iinfluence of Gnosticism is as clear as the sun in the crucifixion passage.
R
Reuben_J
Guest
I just wanna jump the gun here but let’s hear from her too.
From what I know and what I heard from many Muslims, they just don’t have a clue what the term Messiah means. When they mention Jesus Christ you would think they know something about it and why the term appears so. But it is not so. It’s as if they are merely parrotting some scriptures before the Quran. There is no explanation of this term in the Quran; it is not surprising if Muslims think that Christ is a name for Jesus. Of course, now you may hear from them on some definitions of what Christ means but I thought that is more like an afterthought. I have heard a Muslim tried to explain it.
OK, now to Sister Amy. Good luck.
M
Muslim_Woman
Guest
Salaam/peace
sis already mentioned this point. God sent Prophets to all nations . Quran confirmed about the previous scriptures , what happened in the past etc. If Quran took the stories exactly described in other books , then how come story of haman & others are different in Quran & Bible ? Haman story is very interesting …do u know about it ?
B
BeeSweet
Guest
The Quran and the Holy Bible differ because the Quran is a “recitation” originally passed on orally, both to Muhammad, and by him. The Holy Bible is a written document. Changes will always be more likely with oral communication as opposed to written communication. While the Holy Bible certainly must have been communicated by an oral tradition at one time, at the time of Muhammad all the books had already been in a written form for several hundred years, including the New Testament books. Muhammad was illiterate, so he could not have read the books himself, they must have been communicated to him orally.
If you’re speaking of Haman from the book of Esther, yes, it is an interesting story what I know of it from the Holy Bible. The text was originally written in Hebrew, and then also in Greek, the Greek version being a little longer than the Hebrew version. Both versions predate Christianity. I don’t know the version which exists in the Quran if there is one.
I
inJESUS
Guest
what we are talking about is Muhammad repeating the words of Gnostic literature and apocryphic literature written in the 3rd and 4th centuries. How can these be the writings of prophets and how can they be the words of Allah if these same books oppose Muhammad as well? did allah give the power of prophecy to whoever wrote them yet allowed them to write wrong/ridiculous things at the same time? we have the books from which Muhammad quoted/heard and most are fables and ridiculous works so how will you convince us that the writers were inspired prophets?
R
Rose_Commander
Guest
There is an anonymous writer who wrote a treatise called The Analysis of Islam, Muhammad, and the Qur’an. He/She wrote :
After Muhammad’s marriage to Khadija, Bishop Waraka Ibn Nofal befriended him and set his mind to train and disciple Muhammad to succed him as the Ebionite Bishop of Mecca.* Muhammad’s prosperous union with khadija gave him time for solitude at the cave fo Mount Hira in a suburb of Mecca.* It was there that Bishop Waraka began to teach and train him.
Bishop Waraka taught Muhammad many of the Old and New Testament stories of the Bible.* These stories are mentioned in the Koran with great distortion.* He also taught Muhammad about Jesus according to the Ebionites’ belief, which as we mentioned before denies the deity of Christ.
I looked in the Qur’an and I have to agree with the statement above. The Qur’an does contain distortions of stories from the Bible.
After Muhammad’s marriage to Khadija, Bishop Waraka Ibn Nofal befriended him and set his mind to train and disciple Muhammad to succed him as the Ebionite Bishop of Mecca.* Muhammad’s prosperous union with khadija gave him time for solitude at the cave fo Mount Hira in a suburb of Mecca.* It was there that Bishop Waraka began to teach and train him.
Bishop Waraka taught Muhammad many of the Old and New Testament stories of the Bible.* These stories are mentioned in the Koran with great distortion.* He also taught Muhammad about Jesus according to the Ebionites’ belief, which as we mentioned before denies the deity of Christ.
I looked in the Qur’an and I have to agree with the statement above. The Qur’an does contain distortions of stories from the Bible.
I
inJESUS
Guest
Waraqa Ibn Nawfal did indeed play the major role in preparing Muhammad to his mission after Nawfal’s death. Waraqa as the bishop of mecca used to translate whatever scripture he had into Arabic and he was the one who married muhammad to Khadija and pronounced them husband and wife as per the Seera, according to Waraqa’s sect, the Gnostic Ebionite sect that denied jesus’ divinity and taught the gnostic “appearance” of crucifixion…he knew Muhammad for too many years before he died and one does not have to wonder what these 2 men were discussing all these years.
muslims on the other hand prefer to think that Muhammad was not exposed to any scriptures/teachings or sects and that he was a totally illiterate man, as if he dropped from nowhere and was not raised by highly literate people.
muslims on the other hand prefer to think that Muhammad was not exposed to any scriptures/teachings or sects and that he was a totally illiterate man, as if he dropped from nowhere and was not raised by highly literate people.
I
inJESUS
Guest
M
Muslim_Woman
Guest
S
SunfromtheWest
Guest
Not all muslims believe the prophet was illiterate. they believe he was untaught. What kind of person would Jesus or Moses be if they went to school and learned from joe schmo, wouldn’t that mean that joe schmo was at a higher level or status than them?
I
inJESUS
Guest
i do not know what you mean by your second half of your passage but you are correct not all Muslims believe muhammad to be illiterate, but they are a small minority…the majority insist on him being illiterate as a proof for his prophethood, which is beyond reason first because illiteracy does not mean one is mentally retarted or deaf, specially a businessman who travelled a lot and encountered many religious figures including Bahira and who knew Waraqa for 44 years, and second because Muhammad was so favourved by his uncle who raised him and made sure he received the best, like his son Ali, who is very well known for his high literacy and “balagha” which makes any reasonable human ask why would his uncle deprive him of literacy but not his own son when the Islamic literature insists that he favoured Muhammad to the maximum and gave him the best. Muhammad illiteracy is simply a myth .
M
Muslim_Woman
Guest
Salaam/peace
a related link:
Was Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) “Illiterate”?
And thou (O Muhammad) wast not a reader of any scripture before it, nor didst thou write it with thy right hand, for then might those have doubted, who follow falsehood.) (Al-`Ankabut 29: 48)
Those who follow the messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write, whom they will find described in the Torah and the Gospel (which are) …(Al-A`raf 7: 157)
The first verse indicates that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) was an illiterate, knowing neither how to read or write, before the Glorious Qur’an started to be revealed to him.
The second verse indicates that the People of the Book, i.e., the Christians and Jews, knew of the Prophet’s illiteracy in their Divine Books and this is a well-known matter.
The wisdom in his illiteracy as shown in the verses is to avoid the disbelievers’ accusing him of having copied or transformed the Qur’an from another human being or excerpted it from the previous books.
islamonline.net/servlet/Satellite?pagename=IslamOnline-English-Ask_Scholar/FatwaE/FatwaE&cid=1119503546466
Most Muslims believe so as it’s mentioned in Quran . Some believe after he received the revelation , he was no more an illiterate.
a related link:
Was Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) “Illiterate”?
And thou (O Muhammad) wast not a reader of any scripture before it, nor didst thou write it with thy right hand, for then might those have doubted, who follow falsehood.) (Al-`Ankabut 29: 48)
Those who follow the messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write, whom they will find described in the Torah and the Gospel (which are) …(Al-A`raf 7: 157)
The first verse indicates that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) was an illiterate, knowing neither how to read or write, before the Glorious Qur’an started to be revealed to him.
The second verse indicates that the People of the Book, i.e., the Christians and Jews, knew of the Prophet’s illiteracy in their Divine Books and this is a well-known matter.
The wisdom in his illiteracy as shown in the verses is to avoid the disbelievers’ accusing him of having copied or transformed the Qur’an from another human being or excerpted it from the previous books.
islamonline.net/servlet/Satellite?pagename=IslamOnline-English-Ask_Scholar/FatwaE/FatwaE&cid=1119503546466
- Status