G
Greg_McPherran
Guest
Hi Cabaret,
cabaret:
cabaret:
In table IV-B.2 the document states that the Jewish understanding of the correct translation is:the L-rd & to/for my lord [or master]. This is in agreement with the Christian translation.
Though there is nothing in the Hebrew language of this verse to positively indicate that King David was referring to the Messiah when he wrote (adoni), my lord/master,…
Yes, but on what basis do you say that it does not refer to the Messiah?
…in reality, there is no problem with David realizing that the Messiah will be greater than he is.
This does not disagree with what Jesus asks.
Moreover, there is nothing in David’s words to indicate that the individual to whom he refers as my lord/master is a divine being.
**Yes but does this state that the Messiah cannot be God Himself?
If he authored this psalm, David refers to himself in the 3rd-person for someone else to chant about him.
Even if that were the case, it does not mean that the Jewish Scriptures cannot have different depths of meaning. In fact, apparently, many Jewish commentators do not rule out that this passage of David has a Messianic meaning.
ic.net/~erasmus/RAZ337.HTM
Who is speaking to whom in Psalms 110:1? The analysis demonstrates that the Christian interpretation of G-d the Father addressing “G-d” the Son (Jesus) does not work;
As I have shown, since Psalm 110 does have Messianic meaning, then the Father addressing the Son is indeed a valid understanding.
Cabaret, I have two questions:
![40.png](https://forums.catholic-questions.org/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/c/ad7895/40.png)
There are no “proof texts” for any faith, all true faith comes from God Himself.If you want full interpretations of ‘Jesus proof texts’, I’d suggest.
![40.png](https://forums.catholic-questions.org/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/c/ad7895/40.png)
I address the document here (quotes from the document in blue):
In table IV-B.2 the document states that the Jewish understanding of the correct translation is:the L-rd & to/for my lord [or master]. This is in agreement with the Christian translation.
Though there is nothing in the Hebrew language of this verse to positively indicate that King David was referring to the Messiah when he wrote (adoni), my lord/master,…
Yes, but on what basis do you say that it does not refer to the Messiah?
…in reality, there is no problem with David realizing that the Messiah will be greater than he is.
This does not disagree with what Jesus asks.
Moreover, there is nothing in David’s words to indicate that the individual to whom he refers as my lord/master is a divine being.
**Yes but does this state that the Messiah cannot be God Himself?
If he authored this psalm, David refers to himself in the 3rd-person for someone else to chant about him.
Even if that were the case, it does not mean that the Jewish Scriptures cannot have different depths of meaning. In fact, apparently, many Jewish commentators do not rule out that this passage of David has a Messianic meaning.
ic.net/~erasmus/RAZ337.HTM
Who is speaking to whom in Psalms 110:1? The analysis demonstrates that the Christian interpretation of G-d the Father addressing “G-d” the Son (Jesus) does not work;
As I have shown, since Psalm 110 does have Messianic meaning, then the Father addressing the Son is indeed a valid understanding.
Cabaret, I have two questions:
- Have Jewish sages/rabbis taught that Psalm 110:1 has Messianic meaning?
- If so, then why does your link called “Messiah Truth” claim that it does not refer to the Messiah?