So from those three lines in the Bible we know that
- Thomas referred to Jesus as “My Lord and My God.” It says so very clearly in the Bible.
- Jesus did not rebuke him for saying so.
- Therefore, Jesus is God.
Here’s poor Thomas… who doesn’t even believe that Jesus has been resurrected when told by the other disciples. And, his faith is so lacking he won’t believe unless he can actually see Jesus and put his hand into his side. When Jesus reappears alive through the locked doors, Thomas is shocked. He’s never seen anything like this. He exclaims “My Lord and My God”.
Each and every day, I constantly hear people saying “My Lord!”, “Oh My God!” when they are surprised by something.
Your argument is based on “implied consent” because you’re assuming Thomas is defining doctrine and because Jesus didn’t immediately stop and correct him, the statement must be a new doctrinal truth. You are ignoring two other possibilities… that Thomas was simply using an expression of shock, or that he was using the term “god” as is actually is “mighty one” being applied to other men and even angels. Jesus himself even called other men “gods”.
Jesus, able to understand the reasonings of Thomas’ heart, would specifically know what Thomas was really thinking. You are assuming you know that Thomas was referring to Jesus as Almighty God in the flesh, which is contrary to what Jesus himself explicitly taught.
Furthermore, who’s word carries more weight with you… Jesus or Thomas? Look at what Jesus himself specifically said about the question of who was the true, Almighty God:
Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending .
.. to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs. 31).
If you want to hold this belief, I will respect you and your opinion to do so.
Personally, I compare your argument of “implied consent” situation with Thomas against the multiple “explicit” comments made by Jesus about his Father being the “only True God” and side with the explicit statements of Jesus.
There are multiple possible explainations for Thomas’ behavior and you are ignoring several of them to believe in a doctrine that contradicts what Jesus explicitly taught and ultimately violates rudimentary logic… (Jesus referring to His Father as the only true God, “My God”… and yet Jesus is Almighty God too.)
There really is a good reason why Jesus only called himself the “Son of God” and never, ever called himself “God The Son”.
