“bring forth”, “produce”.
Both of those are much, much closer to “create” than “organized.”
Webster’s Collegiate Dictionary, Fifth Edition:
- “To invest with a new form, office, or character; to constitute.”
So of the 5 primary definitions of the word “create” that I listed, Catholics would agree that 4.5 of them are acceptable. However, members of the LDS faith would only agree that .5 of them (sub-definition “a” of definition #2) is acceptable.
I will leave it to “the general reader” (zing!) to judge for themselves as to which groups are “brushing aside” definitions as “non-acceptable.”
Ba-ra is the word used in Isaiah 40:26, and refers back to earlier verses in that chapter that show a word use that does not indicate “out of nothing”.
Again, you’re just making assertions that are patently false. “Ba-ra” does not appear earlier in chapter 40 of Isaiah. It appears
later, in verse 28, when Isaiah refers to “the everlasting God, the LORD, the
Creator of the ends of the earth…”
Isaiah 40:26, from the KJV, in context:
“25 To whom then will ye liken me, or shall I be equal ? saith the Holy One. 26 Lift up your eyes on high, and behold who hath
created these things, that bringeth out their host by number: he calleth them all by names by the greatness of his might, for that he is strong in power; not one faileth . 27 Why sayest thou, O Jacob, and speakest , O Israel, My way is hid from the LORD, and my judgment is passed over from my God? 28 Hast thou not known ? hast thou not heard , that the everlasting God, the LORD, the
Creator of the ends of the earth, fainteth not, neither is weary ?”
And it certainly does show a word used to indicate “out of nothing.” Assuming, of course, that you believe the Bible, which teaches
in the very first sentence that God created the heavens and the earth. If you redefine the first sentence (the first sentence!) of the Bible, as LDS theology does, well… you can obviously draw any number of erroneous conclusions.
I suppose a thought question from Genesis 1:2 is,
Oooh! A “thought question!” That’s my new favorite Parker-ism. Sorry, “to the general reader,” your time has passed.
Why was the earth “without
form” after it had been created if verse 1 is talking about its creation from nothing?
Because God had not yet separated water from dry land. Ever seen mud? Does it have a form? Or would you call it, say, formless?