LDS: Why try to convert Catholics, what do we lack for salvation?

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Originally Posted by paul c
So Now your position is that all the Biblical contradictions to celestial and plural marriages are due to translation errors? Please! But just to answer your objections, here is the same Luke 20: 27-38 from the KJV :kingjamesbibleonline.org/Luke-Chapter-20/
Sorry I’ve been disengaged so long. We have been without power in my town since Thursday and we just came on line yesterday. In any case, I’m sure you don’t want to go through the discussion again because it clearly shows that there is no marriage in heaven. It has nothing to do with the Sadduccee’s lack of faith in the resurrection. He is saying that there is no marriage, period, not that there is no marriage for the Sadduccees specifically. There is no way for you to parse the words out that will show that they are singling out the Sadduccees. That is your own invention to try to make the Bible say exactly the opposite of what it actually says.
(2) The words “able to receive it, let him receive it” have the word “it” italicized because that word was not in the Greek, but was added by the translators. “Receive” can apply to the entire teaching in the passage about no divorce in the higher law Jesus was teaching about. The word “receive” is far different than the word used in the NAB version. It makes sense to me that the words have more to do with no divorce than they have to do with suggesting all men should seek to never marry for the kingdom of heaven’s sake.

It is also important to compare and realize that only Matthew includes that particular teaching of that one verse (19:12), at all, in the four gospels. There is no “second witness” for the teaching and Christ always provided a second witness for key doctrine.
This is a cop out. You discard clear doctrine because you don’t like it. Either all scripture is valid, or it is not. Where does it say anywhere that it has to be covered by two gospels to be valid?
DR stands for Douay-Rheims. It was the older Catholic translation.
Thanks. Interesting that you should like this particular translation. Why?
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by paul c
Parker, this is a losing battle on your part. its not about translations its about the truth.
Let’s review 1Corinthians 7 from the KJV :1Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: [It is] good for a man not to touch a woman.
Parker, are you really claiming that you can do a better job of translating ancient Greek than all those professional translators that came before you and have been accepted by other scholars? Seriously, Do you realize that I have shown you clear scriptural passages from multiple translations that clearly contradict your one claim to the apostasy, celestial marriage, and your arguments have been solely to attact the language? You have said that I parsed the words incorrectly. Then you said I used the wrong translation and now that I have used your preferred translation, you have said that even that is wrong and that you have personally translated it a different way. What would it take you to simply read the verses and accept that you have been deceived?
Also, it seems you are taking the assumption that Paul had never married from verse 7 only, yet Paul does not write that he was never married. You are making just as large an assumption as I have made. The assumption can go either way from reading the epistle, and for Paul to have also written “neither the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord” would be extremely hypocritical if he had also written that every man who marries should have been “even as I myself” if that really did mean “never marry–stay single forever so you can serve the Lord without distraction.”
Paul wrote that he was celibate and recommended that others stay that way if they have the necessary self control as he has. Given that, why would you ever assume he was married? I know, because you must believe so to give any credibility to celestial marriage, the doctrine that you claim is central to the apostasy that gives your religion any credibility. Don’t you see how self serving this is?
Finally, it seems to be lost on many people that for the Sadducees to have asked the question they asked, they knew perfectly well that the Savior had taught that marriage endured after death for covenant marriages (i.e. Adam and Eve kind of marriages where God had done the joining together and not man), or they would certainly not have framed their question the way they framed it. But this will be lost on people who choose to self-justify not even allowing for the possibility that God could have had a plan that included a man and woman having an enduring happiness with each other as “help meet” and “one” that included an eternal marriage covenant to support each other in love and understanding and a process of being completed by that joining by God for all eternity.
They framed the question the way they did because they didn’t understand scripture, just as Jesus said in all three gospel accounts. As you know from having read these accounts, they were trying to trap Jesus. They assumed incorrectly, just as Joseph Smith did, that marriages would continue in the afterlife. Jesus said that assumption was incorrect because there are no marriages in heaven. Why can’t you accept what Jesus teaches over what Joseph Smith teaches?
 
Paul C,
I suppose you had realized that each of the women you quoted from in your post were single when they were sealed to Joseph Smith, and that not one of them had a child by Joseph Smith being the father, yet some had children by other marriages after Joseph Smith died and they remarried. Also, each of those women wrote of their testimony of Joseph Smith. They may have been reluctant about the doctrine (so would have I), but they believed in a prophet of God strongly enough and had had the witness of the Holy Spirit strongly enough about God guiding a prophet on earth, that they were willing to do something their natural inclination was to not do. This is called an Abrahamic test of faith–you will remember that Abraham was asked to sacrifice his son Isaac even though that was completely contrary to God’s law for man.

Brigham Young supported his wives in their talents and interests and abilities. Joseph Smith did that with his wife, Emma. The other women sealed to him did not live for any length of time with him, so it is not a case that one should hang their hat on as far as understanding what I meant by “equal partners who bring equal abilities and unique gifts from God to their marriage”, but you may be assured that I am supportive of my wife in that way to the best of my ability and grateful for her equal role in every way.
Parker,
I am sure you are supportive of your wife. You are not the issue. Joseph Smith is the issue. He created the doctrine of celestial marriage and this whole concept of sealing. As you readily admit above, he only stayed with one of his 33 wives long enough to share anything except sex. And it is clear from your own Mormon records that he told these women that they would be exalted and their families exalted based on thier marriages to him. I know you have a lot invested in your faith but really, what does it take for you to understand that celestial marriage is not of God? I’ve shown you that the concept is contradicted rather harshly by both Jesus and St Paul in the bible. I’ve pointed out how self serving the concept was for Joseph Smith and how his own actions toward his wives was in direct contradiction to what you are taught now and also what was taught in the bible concerning Adultery. How long will you continue to serve Joseph Smith rather than Christ? Who is your messiah and why?
 
zerinus;6352160 said:
I never claimed that any of it was a prophecy. In fact, I am arguing that it wasn’t, against you arguing to the contrary.

We’re talking about two different parts of the quote, but I’m obviously not going to get anywhere going down this road with you.

That is not what the revelation is saying. There were thousands of Latter-day Saints involved in those events. The revelation is referring to them all.

Maybe so but they were certainly led by JS and he is ultimately responsible.

I do! What do I care if others don’t?

I hope I can make a better defense for my faith then “I believe it and I don’t care if you do or not”. I’m pretty sure I can.

Yea, but they are wrong! 😃

Cute!

Go ahead and do it. I am not going to stop you!

:whistle:

Nope! 🙂

😦
 
That is absurd. Suppose they loved each other and wanted to get married so they can live together like husband and wife. They wanted to be able to see each other’s nakedness without committing sin. They wanted to sleep in the same bed without causing a “scandal” as you say. But they are past the age of sexual activity. And both of them are aware of that situation and agree to it. What are they supposed to do?

Zerinus,
You may think the Catholic belief about marriage “absurd.” But there are many who would say the same about the LDS belief that only married men and women can achieve the highest exhaltation. As Elder Oaks said at Harvard last week, “…the mission of His Church is to help us achieve exaltation in the celestial kingdom, and that can only be accomplished through an eternal marriage between a man and a woman.” What of holy single people? What of children?
 
But I do! 🙂

Nope! 🙂

Nope! 🙂

There is a revelation which he received while he was in jail, but this was not it.

I never claimed that any of it was a prophecy. In fact, I am arguing that it wasn’t, against you arguing to the contrary.

That is not what the revelation is saying. There were thousands of Latter-day Saints involved in those events. The revelation is referring to them all.

I do! What do I care if others don’t?

Yea, but they are wrong! 😃

Go ahead and do it. I am not going to stop you!

Nope! 🙂
Thanks so much zerinus. Sorry to have bothered you.

:rolleyes:
 
Sorry I’ve been disengaged so long. We have been without power in my town since Thursday and we just came on line yesterday. In any case, I’m sure you don’t want to go through the discussion again because it clearly shows that there is no marriage in heaven.
Hi, Paul C,
Sorry to hear about your power outage, and hoping you and your family kept warm.

I had thought that once a person reads something and has made up their mind about it, that it makes little sense to keep repeating as though that person had not heard, or as though the repetition will change their mind.

But since others pop up as reading one or two comments and not going back to the earlier comments, then I suppose it’s just as well to answer every one of your questions, as I get time. So, here goes for the first few this time around:
It has nothing to do with the Sadduccee’s lack of faith in the resurrection.
27Then came to [him] certain of the Sadducees, which deny that there is any resurrection; and they asked him,
28Saying, Master, Moses wrote unto us, If any man’s brother die, having a wife, and he die without children, that his brother should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
29There were therefore seven brethren: and the first took a wife, and died without children.
30And the second took her to wife, and he died childless.
31And the third took her; and in like manner the seven also: and they left no children, and died.
32Last of all the woman died also.
33Therefore in the resurrection whose wife of them is she? for seven had her to wife.
34And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:
35But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:
36Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
I disagree entirely, as follows: He showed He was talking about the Sadducees when He used the specific phrase “the children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:” I realize this phrase seems to mean nothing unique to you, but those familiar with that Biblical phrase recognize that it is making a distinction between the “children of this world” and the “children of light” or the “sons of God”. There is no place where Jesus used the phrase “the children of this world” and was not singling out a group who was following the “ways of the world” or the “traditions of the world”. That phrase is a very specific phrase which He used for a very specific purpose, being the perfect Teacher that He is. He also contrasts that phrase when He later says they will become the “children of God” in their resurrection. (That is because they will have come to know God in a way they didn’t before, will no longer be following the ways of the world, and will have accepted Christ and His power of resurrection.)
He is saying that there is no marriage, period, not that there is no marriage for the Sadduccees specifically.
For anyone who are “children of this world”, there is no marriage period in their resurrection. I agree that He was addressing those who make themselves “children of this world” with the light and knowledge they have, and say to themselves, “There is no marriage in heaven.”
There is no way for you to parse the words out that will show that they are singling out the Sadduccees.
There is not any reason to “parse out the words”–of course. One takes the words as they are, and finds the meaning using the method Jesus taught one should use. How many times did He tell the Pharisees and the Scribes they had read the scriptures but did not understand them? There is a similar thing going on with your not catching the very easily understood reference to “the children of this world.” This is not parsing–it is extremely easy. It can be understood by a child. But there are always going to be those who “seeing, see not.”
That is your own invention to try to make the Bible say exactly the opposite of what it actually says.
No–even a Catholic poster brought out the distinction between the “children of light” and the “children of this world.”
This is a cop out. You discard clear doctrine because you don’t like it. Either all scripture is valid, or it is not. Where does it say anywhere that it has to be covered by two gospels to be valid?
A student of the Bible will be familiar with the teaching, “in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.” (Matthew 18:16)

But the verse you seem to think justifies and praises celibacy allows a whole category of doctrine that works toward the same end as that there is no marriage in heaven, so of course it is not surprising that it is brought out as significant. It’s fine with me–it means many, many people are getting what they want out of life and are happy with the choices they have made to be celibate, and are doing service-oriented things with their time which is just fine. They will be rewarded with exactly the kind of life in the hereafter that they lived for here–a life of service, teaching, helping, and doing many wonderful things–just not being married.
Thanks. Interesting that you should like this particular translation. Why?
It seems to match more closely to the Greek, and is closer to the KJV, which I trust as a valid translation for the most part (the KJV), with but few discrepancies.

Have a good evening. If I have time later, I’ll post another answer to another question, or do it tomorrow. Peace to all.
 
This conversation is cracking me up. BUT, a one-time co-worker of mine (LDS) had a husband who did not want to see her undressed in front of him. I didn’t ask why. TMI already, I really didn’t want to know more.
…and yet, you felt you had to share…
 
Methinks thou doth protest too much.
I dunno, it was a surprise to me, too. I had no idea that the Catholic church actually codified this matter so that marriage MUST include sex, or at least the possibility of sex. No concept of the “platonic marriage” or “marriage in name only?”

The problem I got was the catch 22 such a position puts some couples in: they love each other, and want to live together, but for some reason sex isn’t possible. They can’t live together as ‘brother and sister’ because that would cause scandal, so they should marry…except that their marriage wouldn’t be valid because they can’t have sex, so in essence they are sinning more by marrying than they would be by simply being room-mates, but being room-mates causes scandal, so…

(shrug)

I don’t suppose that it is all that common a problem, but it’s not all that rare, either. There are many reasons that a man cannot have sex (fewer for a woman, thank heaven…) and not everybody can take that little blue pill, y’know. (shrug)

Ah, well…suffice it to say that Mormons may marry even if they can’t have sex with one another, because for us marriage is eternal even when our bodies (at least, the ones we have at the moment) are not. I’ll just let you guys figure out the vagaries of your own position by yourselves.
.
 
The problem I got was the catch 22 such a position puts some couples in: they love each other, and want to live together, but for some reason sex isn’t possible. They can’t live together as ‘brother and sister’ because that would cause scandal, so they should marry…except that their marriage wouldn’t be valid because they can’t have sex, so in essence they are sinning more by marrying than they would be by simply being room-mates, but being room-mates causes scandal, so…
The Church recognizes that in marriage “the two shall become one flesh”. It is the primary purpose of marriage. As I said in a prior post the definition of “matrimony” is “the making of a mother”. The ultimate result of becoming one flesh is the creation of a family. Having said that, I have never heard of the Church requiring proof of one’s ability to perform the sexual act or to prove fertility. The Church only requires that the married couple be open to the gift of children. That is my understanding of the theological basis for conjugal union being a requirement of marriage.

Having said that, I just spoke to my priest about this question. He said that he has personally witnessed the marriage of several couples in their late years in our Church. He told me that the requirement is to be open to life, and for those in their late years this could mean the mutual embrassing of children, grandchildren and even great grandchildren from a prior marriage, or even the respective families if there was not prior marriage. Long story short, the Catholic Church would witness and bless the marriage of the couple who were the subject of this tangent, according to my priest.
 
Hi, Paul C,
Sorry to hear about your power outage, and hoping you and your family kept warm.
Thanks for your concern. It was uncomfortable, (47 degrees at the coldest) but not unbearable. Less than a century ago, this would have been normal for everyone.
I had thought that once a person reads something and has made up their mind about it, that it makes little sense to keep repeating as though that person had not heard, or as though the repetition will change their mind.

But since others pop up as reading one or two comments and not going back to the earlier comments, then I suppose it’s just as well to answer every one of your questions, as I get time. So, here goes for the first few this time around:
Quote:
27Then came to [him] certain of the Sadducees, which deny that there is any resurrection; and they asked him,
Well, here’s the rub. In verse 34, it is the people of the world who do marry, isn’t it?.

In verse 35 and 36, it is the children of God , those that equal unto angels and who will never die that don’t marry and aren’t given in marriage, isn’t it?

Again, this completely contradicts the concept of celestial marriage put forward by Joseph Smith, the distinguishing doctrine of your religious beliefs.
Quote:
This is a cop out. You discard clear doctrine because you don’t like it. Either all scripture is valid, or it is not. Where does it say anywhere that it has to be covered by two gospels to be valid?
Parker,
So you disregard statements with only one scriptural witness? This seems highly contradictory for a Mormon to claim since your whole religion is based on the personal revelations of one man, Joseph Smith, isn’t it? And by the way, It makes no sense to say that all relevant scripture is stated twice. That would eliminate most of scripture from consideration.

And by the way, the statement the doctrinal statement in Matthew 19:12 which states that some people stay celibate for the glory of God is repeated in 1Corinthians 7 so there are at least two scriptural versus backing this point.

Face it, Scripture completely contradicts the doctrine of celestial marriage. You can’t explain your way around it. And you can’t blame it on translation because it is common to all reputable translations. Celestial Marriage is an innovation from Joseph Smith, and is not of God.
 
The Church recognizes that in marriage “the two shall become one flesh”. It is the primary purpose of marriage. As I said in a prior post the definition of “matrimony” is “the making of a mother”. The ultimate result of becoming one flesh is the creation of a family. Having said that, I have never heard of the Church requiring proof of one’s ability to perform the sexual act or to prove fertility. The Church only requires that the married couple be open to the gift of children. That is my understanding of the theological basis for conjugal union being a requirement of marriage.

Having said that, I just spoke to my priest about this question. He said that he has personally witnessed the marriage of several couples in their late years in our Church. He told me that the requirement is to be open to life, and for those in their late years this could mean the mutual embrassing of children, grandchildren and even great grandchildren from a prior marriage, or even the respective families if there was not prior marriage. Long story short, the Catholic Church would witness and bless the marriage of the couple who were the subject of this tangent, according to my priest.
That makes a LOT more sense. Thank you for going to a good source for this answer!
 
Well, here’s the rub. In verse 34, it is the people of the world who do marry, isn’t it?.

In verse 35 and 36, it is the children of God , those that equal unto angels and who will never die that don’t marry and aren’t given in marriage, isn’t it?

Again, this completely contradicts the concept of celestial marriage put forward by Joseph Smith, the distinguishing doctrine of your religious beliefs.

Parker,
So you disregard statements with only one scriptural witness? This seems highly contradictory for a Mormon to claim since your whole religion is based on the personal revelations of one man, Joseph Smith, isn’t it? And by the way, It makes no sense to say that all relevant scripture is stated twice. That would eliminate most of scripture from consideration.

And by the way, the statement the doctrinal statement in Matthew 19:12 which states that some people stay celibate for the glory of God is repeated in 1 Corinthians 7 so there are at least two scriptural versus backing this point.

Face it, Scripture completely contradicts the doctrine of celestial marriage. You can’t explain your way around it. And you can’t blame it on translation because it is common to all reputable translations. Celestial Marriage is an innovation from Joseph Smith, and is not of God.
Paul C,
You do realize that I have hundreds, thousands, millions of witnesses each of whom has experienced a first-hand witness from God that there is marriage in heaven, so the idea of witnesses has a far more first-hand bearing than your impression that only Joseph Smith had that witness from God. I have that witness from God. It is completely unmistakable, and completely truthful. But you don’t–having not followed the steps to get such a witness.

The “children of this world” marry. The world will be “marrying and giving in marriage” at the time of the Second Coming, just as the Savior said in Matthew 24:38–but that does not make them righteous.

Marriage is a good thing. Covenant marriage is a better thing. An eternal covenant kept is a still better thing. An eternal covenant must first be desired–it will not be forced on a person nor on two people.

Verses 35 and 36 confirm that those who had previously been described as the “children of this world” will have had an awakening during the time they were in the spirit world, such that they will become the “children of God” but yet as you noted, that does not mean they can change their mind about getting an eternal marriage. They will have already made that decision for themselves, during mortality. They will become the “children of God” because they are “children of the resurrection” (which means they accepted Christ’s power to resurrect them). That does not make them joint heirs with Christ. God is loving to all of His children. He gives them the best situation they have lived to receive. It is fine with me if you want to be an angel–it’s a choice you can make for yourself. Christ said that is what the Sadducees will receive, and what the “children of this world” will receive as they become the “children of the resurrection.”

I didn’t say I disregard a single scriptural witness. I think a single scriptural witness should be looked at very carefully before drawing a major doctrinal conclusion from one verse in the Bible.

You’re right that Paul’s teaching can be used to justify celibacy, so that does give justification to those who don’t want to follow the commandment given to Adam and Eve. They will be able to explain their rationale, besides which they will bring along many people with them into the resurrection of being like angels, so this entire group receives exactly what they have taught about what heaven is like. It will simply not be a surprise nor a disappointment. Why should one be disappointed for receiving what they wanted to receive?

Joseph Smith had another witness for the vision of the degrees of glory, for the visions of the restoration of keys of priesthood, and the Book of Mormon is a witness of itself and thus a witness of Joseph Smith’s truthfulness. The Holy Spirit is the most important witness. I have the Holy Spirit’s witness, thus your words are like the words of a school child with not a whit’s impact.

You have found justification for your beliefs. I have certain knowledge of the truthfulness of my beliefs and the sure covenant with God and Christ, so it is simply an exercise in futility for anyone to think that such a witness and such a covenant can be shaken by anyone at all, let alone someone with such evident little scriptural knowledge as to not understand a simple concept such as “children of this world” compared with “children of light.”
 
Parker, are you really claiming that you can do a better job of translating ancient Greek than all those professional translators that came before you and have been accepted by other scholars?
Paul C,
Whether someone thinks they are “professional” does not make them right, but more importantly, one can find an internet source for beginning to try and glean a comparison with the Greek “Textus Receptus” in today’s world and realize that a translator was making choices as they translated–choices of how to translate an understood “they”, whether to include “the” or not, whether to include a word such as “it” or not, and whether a certain word meant one thing or another thing since words do not have a one-to-one transliteration meaning moving from Greek to English. Every such choice is important to the meaning of the text, and merely shows the bias of the translator–so no, just because they are considered by themselves a “professional” they don’t need to be believed, although of course they could be expected to be very emphatic that they know exactly the right meaning and that there is no other possible meaning than “their way” of doing it.
Seriously, Do you realize that I have shown you clear scriptural passages from multiple translations that clearly contradict your one claim to the apostasy, celestial marriage, and your arguments have been solely to attack the language?
I never once have remarked that celestial marriage is my “one claim to the apostasy.” I have, during the conversation we have had here, had another conversation going during the same time frame concerning a different issue, and have had conversations about other issues repeatedly. Celestial marriage ends up being the one thing that a person is ultimately either choosing for themselves, or not, by making all the other choices about whether there was an “apostasy” or a “drifting” from true and pure doctrine.
You have said that I parsed the words incorrectly. Then you said I used the wrong translation and now that I have used your preferred translation, you have said that even that is wrong and that you have personally translated it a different way. What would it take you to simply read the verses and accept that you have been deceived?
I never used the word “parsed” in describing your understanding. I used the word “grammar” and the words “children of light” and I illustrated that the passage in 1 Corinthians 7 has potential translation choices made by a translator and placed on paper as their choice among several possibilities. Anyone who does not have the understanding enough to realize that the English text of a translation reflects a translator’s biases, has no background at all in language. Nor do I need to feel worried about being “deceived” since “holy men of God spake as they were moved upon by the Holy Ghost” and I have the same gift of the Holy Ghost and completely understand that gift and that source of knowledge, which is a higher and more trustworthy source than someone who was already taking the gospel in a different direction by the time they translated from the original Greek.
Paul wrote that he was celibate and recommended that others stay that way if they have the necessary self control as he has. Given that, why would you ever assume he was married?
You can point out the verse where Paul “wrote that he was celibate”? I disagree that there is such a verse.
I know, because you must believe so to give any credibility to celestial marriage, the doctrine that you claim is central to the apostasy that gives your religion any credibility. Don’t you see how self serving this is?
No–I was already aware that 1 Corinthians 7 was primarily talking about second marriages or the reaction someone should have when their spouse did not join the same religion as that married person, and what they should do if the spouse left the marriage. That was already in the English text. I looked at the Greek to get more insights into what was going on and where a translator was coming from as they looked at the Greek and made choices of how to say it in English. This is called being a “student”, not being “self-serving.”
They framed the question the way they did because they didn’t understand scripture, just as Jesus said in all three gospel accounts. As you know from having read these accounts, they were trying to trap Jesus.
Correct, but Jesus answered by framing the answer in terms of their question. Jesus was the most intelligent Person who ever lived. He knew exactly and precisely what He was doing, and knew precisely and exactly how specific language provides specific meaning, but also that there was a way to answer a question such that the hearer “seeing, would see not”. The apostles knew this. That is why they would in several instances come to Jesus after a public situation and ask in so many words, “What didst thou mean?”
They assumed incorrectly, just as Joseph Smith did, that marriages would continue in the afterlife.
Nonsense. Why in the world would they come up with such an assumption on their own, when they didn’t even believe in the resurrection at all?
Jesus said that assumption was incorrect because there are no marriages in heaven. Why can’t you accept what Jesus teaches over what Joseph Smith teaches?
Not so. Your question should be “why can’t * accept grammar that is incorrect” and my answer is, “because I am knowledgeable about grammar and don’t need to accept the incorrectness of someone else’s bias and lack of grammatical accuracy.” The grammar stands by itself, without Joseph Smith being involved at all.

Have a good day.*
 
Paul C,
You do realize that I have hundreds, thousands, millions of witnesses each of whom has experienced a first-hand witness from God that there is marriage in heaven, so the idea of witnesses has a far more first-hand bearing than your impression that only Joseph Smith had that witness from God. I have that witness from God. It is completely unmistakable, and completely truthful. But you don’t–having not followed the steps to get such a witness.
You are right, I don’t have the witness you claim that there is marriage in heaven. All I have is the words of Jesus that there is no marriage in heaven and of Paul that it is better to be celibate to serve God if you can manage it. Your claims are without any substantiation and against scripture, so why should I believe them? You have given nothing other than a generic statement that you have a witness from God. You haven’t described it and you haven’t shown anything that would prove it was from God.
The “children of this world” marry. The world will be “marrying and giving in marriage” at the time of the Second Coming, just as the Savior said in Matthew 24:38–but that does not make them righteous.
Come on Parker, Of course the world will continue to marry up until the second coming, which will happen unexpectedly. There never was a debate that the living will marry. The question is whether there is marriage in heaven and this doesn’t address that.
Marriage is a good thing. Covenant marriage is a better thing. An eternal covenant kept is a still better thing. An eternal covenant must first be desired–it will not be forced on a person nor on two people.
Of course marriage is a good thing. We’re not debating that. It is after all considered sacred by Catholics, one of the 7 sacraments.
But Jesus said that there is no marriage in heaven. It is not needed because there is no need for sex in heaven since there is no procreation there and everyone will love everyone else.
Verses 35 and 36 confirm that those who had previously been described as the “children of this world” will have had an awakening during the time they were in the spirit world, such that they will become the “children of God” but yet as you noted, that does not mean they can change their mind about getting an eternal marriage. They will have already made that decision for themselves, during mortality. They will become the “children of God” because they are “children of the resurrection” (which means they accepted Christ’s power to resurrect them). That does not make them joint heirs with Christ. God is loving to all of His children. He gives them the best situation they have lived to receive. It is fine with me if you want to be an angel–it’s a choice you can make for yourself. Christ said that is what the Sadducees will receive, and what the “children of this world” will receive as they become the “children of the resurrection.”
Parker, the absolute truth of the matter is that the Children of God will not marry or be given in marriage in the afterlife. This is clearly stated. And remember, this militates against other Mormon Celestial marriage doctrines which claim that not only are people sealed on earth but that others are sealed in heaven. The whole celestial marriage doctrine is a house of cards that can not survive even the minimal scrutiny I have provided.
I didn’t say I disregard a single scriptural witness. I think a single scriptural witness should be looked at very carefully before drawing a major doctrinal conclusion from one verse in the Bible.
Come on, Parker, about 5 posts ago you said this:
A student of the Bible will be familiar with the teaching, “in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.” (Matthew 18:16).
And as I showed, Matthew 19:12 is backed by 1corinthians 7.
 
You’re right that Paul’s teaching can be used to justify celibacy, so that does give justification to those who don’t want to follow the commandment given to Adam and Eve. They will be able to explain their rationale, besides which they will bring along many people with them into the resurrection of being like angels, so this entire group receives exactly what they have taught about what heaven is like. It will simply not be a surprise nor a disappointment. Why should one be disappointed for receiving what they wanted to receive?
Well, at least you are now recognizing that scripture says that marraige is not a requirement for heaven. That is a start. Now we need to work on your view of the afterlife. Where does it say anywhere in scripture that certain people will be exalted to become Gods who have their own universes?
Joseph Smith had another witness for the vision of the degrees of glory, for the visions of the restoration of keys of priesthood, and the Book of Mormon is a witness of itself and thus a witness of Joseph Smith’s truthfulness. The Holy Spirit is the most important witness. I have the Holy Spirit’s witness, thus your words are like the words of a school child with not a whit’s impact.
. You have been decieved. None of the 11 witnesses are credible, all of them left your church at some point. When someone writes a book, it can not be considered an independent witness to the author’s credibility. Lots of people claim to have the Holy spirit’s witness, yet they teach different doctrines. What is your proof that the Holy spirit talks to you directly?
You have found justification for your beliefs. I have certain knowledge of the truthfulness of my beliefs and the sure covenant with God and Christ, so it is simply an exercise in futility for anyone to think that such a witness and such a covenant can be shaken by anyone at all, let alone someone with such evident little scriptural knowledge as to not understand a simple concept such as “children of this world” compared with “children of light.”
Parker, contrary to what you say, I do indeed understand the concept of children of the world vs children of the light. the Children of the world marry. The children of the light don’t in Luke 20 verses 34-36. (DR version this time):
34 And Jesus said to them: The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: 35 But they that shall be accounted worthy of that world, and of the resurrection from the dead, shall neither be married, nor take wives. 36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal to the angels, and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection

But you are right in that I am an amateur apologist and yet, despite all your learning, you can’t support your celestial marriage doctrine with anything other than vauge statements about the witness of the holy spirit and weak claims that scripture is wrongly understood or translated… That can only be because you are not on the side of truth. Give that some thought.
 
Paul C,
Whether someone thinks they are “professional” does not make them right, but more importantly, one can find an internet source for beginning to try and glean a comparison with the Greek “Textus Receptus” in today’s world and realize that a translator was making choices as they translated–choices of how to translate an understood “they”, whether to include “the” or not, whether to include a word such as “it” or not, and whether a certain word meant one thing or another thing since words do not have a one-to-one transliteration meaning moving from Greek to English. Every such choice is important to the meaning of the text, and merely shows the bias of the translator–so no, just because they are considered by themselves a “professional” they don’t need to be believed, although of course they could be expected to be very emphatic that they know exactly the right meaning and that there is no other possible meaning than “their way” of doing it.
Parker, of course translators make decisions on word choice because language is (name removed by moderator)ercise. But, really, we are talking about major collaborative efforts with a ton of scrutiny when we talk about NAB, KJV, and the DR versions. It just isn’t credible when your own personal translation seeks to overturn scriptural understanding that is centuries old.
I never once have remarked that celestial marriage is my “one claim to the apostasy.” I have, during the conversation we have had here, had another conversation going during the same time frame concerning a different issue, and have had conversations about other issues repeatedly. Celestial marriage ends up being the one thing that a person is ultimately either choosing for themselves, or not, by making all the other choices about whether there was an “apostasy” or a “drifting” from true and pure doctrine.
I’m not trying to put words in your mouth but a week or two ago, you responded to the question of what it takes for a Mormon to be exalted. You listed 6 items, the last being celestial marriage. I showed you that there was close alignment on the first 5 and that the only significant departure was on Celestial marriage. you seemed to agree that this was the major point of contention where the Church needed restoration
I never used the word “parsed” in describing your understanding. I used the word “grammar” and the words “children of light” and I illustrated that the passage in 1 Corinthians 7 has potential translation choices made by a translator and placed on paper as their choice among several possibilities. Anyone who does not have the understanding enough to realize that the English text of a translation reflects a translator’s biases, has no background at all in language. Nor do I need to feel worried about being “deceived” since “holy men of God spake as they were moved upon by the Holy Ghost” and I have the same gift of the Holy Ghost and completely understand that gift and that source of knowledge, which is a higher and more trustworthy source than someone who was already taking the gospel in a different direction by the time they translated from the original Greek.
Unsubstantiated statements about being led by the Holy Spirit are unconvincing. Charles Manson claimed the same thing, after all. What is your proof that this is so…
You can point out the verse where Paul “wrote that he was celibate”? I disagree that there is such a verse.
From the DR version: 1 corinithians 7: 7-8:
7 For I would that all men were even as myself: but every one hath his proper gift from God; one after this manner, and another after that.
8 But I say to the unmarried, and to the widows: It is good for them if they so continue, even as I.
No–I was already aware that 1 Corinthians 7 was primarily talking about second marriages or the reaction someone should have when their spouse did not join the same religion as that married person, and what they should do if the spouse left the marriage. That was already in the English text. I looked at the Greek to get more insights into what was going on and where a translator was coming from as they looked at the Greek and made choices of how to say it in English. This is called being a “student”, not being “self-serving.”
Really, is that what you call disagreeing with all accepted translations and trying to find your own meanings?
Correct, but Jesus answered by framing the answer in terms of their question. Jesus was the most intelligent Person who ever lived. He knew exactly and precisely what He was doing, and knew precisely and exactly how specific language provides specific meaning, but also that there was a way to answer a question such that the hearer “seeing, would see not”. The apostles knew this. That is why they would in several instances come to Jesus after a public situation and ask in so many words, “What didst thou mean?”
Most of the misunderstanding of scripture results from clear words being misunderstood because of pre-conceived notions. This was true of the Apostles, who never contemplated a suffering messiah and it is true now.
 
Nonsense. Why in the world would they come up with such an assumption on their own, when they didn’t even believe in the resurrection at all?
You are right that they didn’t believe in the resurrection, so they couldn’t see anything other than what they knew in their earthly lives. There is marriage on earth, so they couldn’t percieve of a heaven where marriage was unnecessary. That led to their misunderstanding.
Not so. Your question should be “why can’t * accept grammar that is incorrect” and my answer is, “because I am knowledgeable about grammar and don’t need to accept the incorrectness of someone else’s bias and lack of grammatical accuracy.” The grammar stands by itself, without Joseph Smith being involved at all. * You are constantly trying to justify your position on your unique understanding of grammar and translation. Shouldn’t that be raising red flabs for you? Why would you think that you know better than everyone else on this?
ParkerD;6356493:
Have a good day.
You too. I hope you understand that I am pressing you on this to help you find the truth. I also want you to understand that I respect your thoughtful responses.
 
Marriage is a good thing. Covenant marriage is a better thing.
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There aren’t two different types of marriage. Marriage is marriage is marriage. It’s two (male and female) joined together by God so that they can help each other be holy and reach heaven.
 
That makes a LOT more sense. Thank you for going to a good source for this answer!
Yeah, it didn’t feel right and I could not imagine our Church refusing to allow some cute little couple in their 90’s to marry. Sometimes, especially with a hypothetical situation, we can take something with a sound theological basis as written in stone while ignoring the mitigating circumstances.

This same idea would apply to suicide. Theologically speaking we must say that it is a serious sin as God is the author of life and we have no business taking that life, even if it is our own. In reality, the Church recognizes mental illness, undue stress and other factors that may have contributed to someone taking their own life and prays for their salvation. We can’t know what was in the persons heart. Hope that makes sense.
 
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