Sorry I’ve been disengaged so long. We have been without power in my town since Thursday and we just came on line yesterday. In any case, I’m sure you don’t want to go through the discussion again because it clearly shows that there is no marriage in heaven.
Hi, Paul C,
Sorry to hear about your power outage, and hoping you and your family kept warm.
I had thought that once a person reads something and has made up their mind about it, that it makes little sense to keep repeating as though that person had not heard, or as though the repetition will change their mind.
But since others pop up as reading one or two comments and not going back to the earlier comments, then I suppose it’s just as well to answer every one of your questions, as I get time. So, here goes for the first few this time around:
It has nothing to do with the Sadduccee’s lack of faith in the resurrection.
27Then came to [him] certain of the Sadducees, which deny that there is any resurrection; and they asked him,
28Saying, Master, Moses wrote unto us, If any man’s brother die, having a wife, and he die without children, that his brother should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
29There were therefore seven brethren: and the first took a wife, and died without children.
30And the second took her to wife, and he died childless.
31And the third took her; and in like manner the seven also: and they left no children, and died.
32Last of all the woman died also.
33Therefore in the resurrection whose wife of them is she? for seven had her to wife.
34And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:
35But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:
36Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
I disagree entirely, as follows: He showed He was talking about the Sadducees when He used the specific phrase “the children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:” I realize this phrase seems to mean nothing unique to you, but those familiar with that Biblical phrase recognize that it is making a distinction between the “children of this world” and the “children of light” or the “sons of God”. There is no place where Jesus used the phrase “the children of this world” and was not singling out a group who was following the “ways of the world” or the “traditions of the world”. That phrase is a very specific phrase which He used for a very specific purpose, being the perfect Teacher that He is. He also contrasts that phrase when He later says they will become the “children of God” in their resurrection. (That is because they will have come to know God in a way they didn’t before, will no longer be following the ways of the world, and will have accepted Christ and His power of resurrection.)
He is saying that there is no marriage, period, not that there is no marriage for the Sadduccees specifically.
For anyone who are “children of this world”, there is no marriage period in their resurrection. I agree that He was addressing those who make themselves “children of this world” with the light and knowledge they have, and say to themselves, “There is no marriage in heaven.”
There is no way for you to parse the words out that will show that they are singling out the Sadduccees.
There is not any reason to “parse out the words”–of course. One takes the words as they are, and finds the meaning using the method Jesus taught one should use. How many times did He tell the Pharisees and the Scribes they had read the scriptures but did not understand them? There is a similar thing going on with your not catching the very easily understood reference to “the children of this world.” This is not parsing–it is extremely easy. It can be understood by a child. But there are always going to be those who “seeing, see not.”
That is your own invention to try to make the Bible say exactly the opposite of what it actually says.
No–even a Catholic poster brought out the distinction between the “children of light” and the “children of this world.”
This is a cop out. You discard clear doctrine because you don’t like it. Either all scripture is valid, or it is not. Where does it say anywhere that it has to be covered by two gospels to be valid?
A student of the Bible will be familiar with the teaching, “in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.” (Matthew 18:16)
But the verse you seem to think justifies and praises celibacy allows a whole category of doctrine that works toward the same end as that there is no marriage in heaven, so of course it is not surprising that it is brought out as significant. It’s fine with me–it means many, many people are getting what they want out of life and are happy with the choices they have made to be celibate, and are doing service-oriented things with their time which is just fine. They will be rewarded with exactly the kind of life in the hereafter that they lived for here–a life of service, teaching, helping, and doing many wonderful things–just not being married.
Thanks. Interesting that you should like this particular translation. Why?
It seems to match more closely to the Greek, and is closer to the KJV, which I trust as a valid translation for the most part (the KJV), with but few discrepancies.
Have a good evening. If I have time later, I’ll post another answer to another question, or do it tomorrow. Peace to all.