Leeann, a question for you and anyone else who might like to answer.

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So you are saying that all bishops of the Church MUST be married according to your personal interpretation of the Scriptural passage. There is no provision otherwise. If a man is single, if a man becomes a widower. . .he cannot be a bishop. Only a married man can be a bishop. That is your contention? And the tradition of Christianity does not support you then, either in the Catholic OR in the Orthodox church. I wonder why.
 
justasking4 said:
Qualfications for a bishops. He is to be married, have children and manage his children well. See I Timothy 3.
The Roman Catholic church disqualifies a married man from even being considered.
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Therefore, a bishop must be irreproachable, married only once, temperate, self-controlled, decent, hospitable, able to teach,
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not a drunkard, not aggressive, but gentle, not contentious, not a lover of money.
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I See no mention of children nor do I see a command that a Bishop must be married only that he should have only been married once.
 
justasking4 said:
Qualfications for a bishops. He is to be married, have children and manage his children well. See I Timothy 3.
The Roman Catholic church disqualifies a married man from even being considered.
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That is a disciple, not a doctrine. Not all rites forbid priests from marrying. There are many married priests.

Both Paul and Jesus said it is preferable for leaders to remain single.

That is the position of the Church.

The bible does not say that a priest has to be married, but that he can not be married to more than one woman.

Keep trying!
 
adrift said:
I See no mention of children nor do I see a command that a Bishop must be married only that he should have only been married once.
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Are your any of your bishops in your church married or have been married?
 
CHESTERTONRULES said:
That is a disciple, not a doctrine. Not all rites forbid priests from marrying. There are many married priests.

Both Paul and Jesus said it is preferable for leaders to remain single.

That is the position of the Church.

The bible does not say that a priest has to be married, but that he can not be married to more than one woman.

Keep trying!
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The Roman Catholic church forbids married catholic men from being even considered to be bishops or even priests because of they are married.
 
justasking4 said:
Are your any of your bishops in your church married or have been married?
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I could be cute and say yes but I am going to squash that urge. :bounce:

Jesus gave the right to the Church to loose and bind. It is merely a discipline that finds its roots in Jesus’ words. You are misinterpreting the scripture which I have pointed out. You have added to scripture which I also pointed out. Bishops are not required to be married that would go against what Jesus said and Paul reiterated.
 
Priests are not ‘forbidden to marry’; they choose not to marry.

BTW, what Scripture says that everything that is said in Scripture is to be understood only as it was ‘perceived’ at the time of the writing? Come to that, how do you know it was ‘perceived’ the way YOU understand it?

When you are receiving a ‘symbolic’ bread at your church, why aren’t you reclining around a table? And living in common? That is the way that Christians received. That is the way that Christians lived in Scripture. Why don’t you?

Are the women who attend your church veiled? Why not? Scripture says they should be.

Why can **you “**pick and choose” how you interpret or how you ‘accept’ a Scripture’s meaning. . .everything from saying John 6 is ‘clearly only figurative’ to insisting on sola scriptura. . .but you cavil at Catholics who actually have a legitimate apostolic authority in their Magesterium and authentic authority from the Holy Spirit?
 
justasking4 said:
The Roman Catholic church forbids married catholic men from being even considered to be bishops or even priests because of they are married.
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Not true. A married man can, under certain cases, be allowed to be a priest. IN the past, there have been married Bishops as well. It is not the current discipline, though. Disciplines can be changed, doctrine cannot.
 
I’m still waiting to hear why JA can claim that his interpretation is ‘correct’ regarding the ‘must’ marry of bishops, and claim the Catholic Church has ‘forbidden’ this ‘must marry’. . .yet JA disregards or does not follow many Scriptual passages himself.

So, JA. . .are the women in your church veiled, as St. Paul commands? Are they silent?

If not, why not? Is it that you claim that the ‘discipline’ of veiling a woman was not something that was meant 'for all time?" That your church has the ‘option’ or the ‘power’ to interpret Scriptural passages as being either ‘timeless’ or ‘only for a certain time?’
That you or your church have the ‘authority’ to determine whether a passage in Scripture is to be taken ‘literally’ or ‘figuratively’?

If you claim that ‘veiled women’ were only to be held to this command of St. Paul’s for certain times, and not in ‘today’s culture’. . .then how can you claim that the passage regarding whether a bishop has ‘one wife’ is not of the same ilk?

What makes you correct in not having ‘veiled women’, and the Catholic church ‘incorrect’ in not insisting on married bishops?

If you–or your church–can feel ‘led by the Spirit’ such that you can decide that women need not be veiled as Scripture clearly specifies 'at this time–as well as many other ‘choices’ which you have made over what Scripture you find that you will accept as literal, and what figurative, and what ‘interpretation’ you can make to accommodate today’s world. . .why do you object to Catholics and their Church–who claim to be led by the Holy Spirit–doing what you yourself feel perfectly justified in doing?

You can’t have it both ways, you know.
 
sandusky said:
How do you know that?

In fact, how do you know that there is a thing called “magisterium?” :hmmm:
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Because we believe that the Bible is the inspired-inerrant Word of God!

Matt 28:18-20
“All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19 **Go therefore **and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and **teaching **them to obey everything that I have commanded you. And remember, I am with you always, to the end of the age.”

Jesus transferred His teaching authority to the Apostles. They, in turn, chose faithful men who were able to teach others also. The divine deposit of faith was committed to these faithful men, and they preserved it, passing it on to the present day. 👍
 
justasking4 said:
Compare church teaching (Magisterium) such as Tresuary of Merit, Marian doctrines and mandated celibacy for bishops with the Scriptures. The 2 sources are not in harmony and in some cases disagree with each other:
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They certainly seem to disagree, especially to the ignorant, hard hearted, and hostile to the faith of the Apostles.
 
ralphinal said:
Originally Posted by justasking4
The Roman Catholic church forbids married catholic men from being even considered to be bishops or even priests because of they are married.

ralphinal
Not true. A married man can, under certain cases, be allowed to be a priest. IN the past, there have been married Bishops as well. It is not the current discipline, though. Disciplines can be changed, doctrine cannot.
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I’m not addressing “exceptions” but the rule. If a married Roman catholic man wants to become a bishop can he?
 
guanophore said:
Originally Posted by justasking4
Compare church teaching (Magisterium) such as Tresuary of Merit, Marian doctrines and mandated celibacy for bishops with the Scriptures. The 2 sources are not in harmony and in some cases disagree with each other:

guanophore;
They certainly seem to disagree, especially to the ignorant, hard hearted, and hostile to the faith of the Apostles.
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They do disagree and it has nothing to do with being hard hearted or hostile. Its plain as day when you compare specific doctrines with the inspired-inerrant Scriptures. 👍
 
adrift said:
Originally Posted by justasking4
Are your any of your bishops in your church married or have been married?

adrift;
I could be cute and say yes but I am going to squash that urge. :bounce:

Jesus gave the right to the Church to loose and bind. It is merely a discipline that finds its roots in Jesus’ words. You are misinterpreting the scripture which I have pointed out. You have added to scripture which I also pointed out. Bishops are not required to be married that would go against what Jesus said and Paul reiterated.
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The Roman Catholic church circumavents the Scriptures by denying married catholic men from being bishops. No church or man has the authority to circumavent the Scriptures.
 
justasking4 said:
The Roman Catholic church circumavents the Scriptures by denying married catholic men from being bishops. No church or man has the authority to circumavent the Scriptures.
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First of all we are the Catholic Church. No one has the right to be ordained. You are misinterpreting scripture and ignoring those scriptures that give the right to the Church to regulate. Your premise is unsound so your whole argument is based on sand. It is based on man’s not God’s reasoning.
 
Hajnalcsillag said:
Didn’t the Pharisees make the same claim about themselves?
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Indeed they did, and Jesus affirmed that the claim was valid. He said:

Matt 23:1-4
Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples, 2 "The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat; 3 therefore, do whatever they teach you and follow it; but do not do as they do, for they do not practice what they teach.

“Moses seat” is the authority appointed by Christ. Since the Pharisees and scribes did not receive Him, the teaching authority was transferred from them to His Apostles. He gave them His own authority to teach.

This is why the Reformation was such a great sin. Jesus was clear that the authority appointed by God should be obeyed, even if they were hypocrites. God rewards those who obey Him, even if they suffer corrupt leadership.
 
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