T
Tietjen
Guest
I agree of course with the Holy Father; however, at the same time, I question whether or not this means that God’s standard of what is and isn’t sin depends upon the era (time period). God doesn’t change, right? God is outside of time, right? What is sinful yesterday, in God’s eyes, can be assumed to be sinful today, right? Therefore, assuming that these questions I ask are true, it would be logical to believe that if lying today (under all circumstances) is a sin, then it must have been a sin back in the day of Judith. Yet, Judith found favor with God for the actions that she had done in defending the Jewish people. What did she do? She lied. So, what does this say to the topic we are discussing?As to Judith (I must confess not having read it…only heard what is read at Mass…but …)
Here this may be helpful for you:
“Here it must be remembered first and foremost that biblical revelation is deeply rooted in history. God’s plan is manifested progressively and it is accomplished slowly, in successive stages and despite human resistance. God chose a people and patiently worked to guide and educate them. Revelation is suited to the cultural and moral level of distant times and thus describes facts and customs, such as cheating and trickery, and acts of violence and massacre, without explicitly denouncing the immorality of such things. This can be explained by the historical context, yet it can cause the modern reader to be taken aback, especially if he or she fails to take account of the many “dark” deeds carried out down the centuries, and also in our own day. In the Old Testament, the preaching of the prophets vigorously challenged every kind of injustice and violence, whether collective or individual, and thus became God’s way of training his people in preparation for the Gospel…”
–Pope Benedict XVI Verbum Domini
Respectfully, commentaries are not inspired and therefore can and do counter one another. Comparing the overall commentary found in the NAB to that of the Navarre will prove this. Therefore, while I’ll read the various commentaries on any given verse(s) I don’t hold them as being inerrant. Secondly, we assume that caravan’s may have played a role in this situation but we do not know this to be fact simply because it is not mentioned in Scripture or for that matter Sacred Tradition. Has the Magisterium shed any light on this? I don’t know… therefore, unless “one of the three legs of the stool” says otherwise we can speculate that is the best we can hope for. As for the adding of the word “yet” to verse 8, what should we do to determine which version of the Bible should be used when reading the verse? I attempted to use the Clementine Vulgate but I do not speak enough Latin to determine this. So I went to the next best version, the Douay-Rheims and the word “yet” is not found in or around verse 8.As to Jesus in John 7:2-10
I would direct you to the Navarre Bible Commentary. The Jews who lived far away went usually for the feast via caravan. Jesus did not want to go at this time with the crowd…it will give various reasons there if you read the Navarre. He did not leave with the caravan …but remained in Galilee after they left. Later went up privately. There was no lie. I will also note that the RSV mentions there a variant that other ancient authorities add the word “yet” in verse 8.
[2] Now the Jews’ feast of tabernacles was at hand. [3] And his brethren said to him: Pass from hence, and go into Judea; that thy disciples also may see thy works which thou dost. [4] For there is no man that doth any thing in secret, and he himself seeketh to be known openly. If thou do these things, manifest thyself to the world. [5] For neither did his brethren believe in him.
[6] Then Jesus said to them: My time is not yet come; but your time is always ready. [7] The world cannot hate you; but me it hateth: because I give testimony of it, that the works thereof are evil. [8] Go you up to this festival day, but I go not up to this festival day: because my time is not accomplished. [9] When he had said these things, he himself stayed in Galilee. [10] But after his brethren were gone up, then he also went up to the feast, not openly, but, as it were, in secret.
I have seen the CCC quotes that you have pointed out and yes, if you pull out specific phrases it can be said that lying is always a sin. Thank you for pointing out however, the CCC addresses (to some extent) that there are other options which should not be considered lying and therefore may not be sinful. For example, the “mental reservation” argument. Please correct me if I am wrong… this is the technique of reserving (holding back) certain speech from an untruthful statement and thus rendering it truthful. For example, if Nazis come to a home and ask the home owners if they are hiding any Jews in their home, the home owners can verbally say, “No, there are no jews in this house…” but then continue the statement in their minds, “… that I want to tell you about.” Somehow, “mental reservation” claims that this is not a lie since they finished the phrase mentally. I believe that I would need to see something from the Holy See stating that this is an example of speaking the truth. Until then, I respectfully disagree with those who will say that all lying is a sin but mental reservation is not sinful.(as to lying being a sin…see the CCC quotes above…it is a sin…it is condemned in its very nature and I will note too on a side note but germaine to the thread-- that one could argue as to what constitutes a lie in a given event…and what is rather careful language or good mental reservation or other things…)