Let’s be accurate. Jesus did not use the Greek language so he would not have used ANY Greek words.
Let’s be accurate. Koine Greek was the lingua franca of the area in that timeframe. Even if that doesn’t sound convincing to you, you’d still have to explain how Jesus ministered in the Decapolis if he didn’t speak Greek.
However, even with this notion in mind, it’s really irrelevant in terms of understanding what the Scripture passage means. The Church asserts that the Bible – in its original form – is inerrant. A non-canonical source asserts that Matthew may have been translated into Greek; but, that’s not something that’s universally held to be true. Therefore, considering that the earliest versions we have are Greek, the Church asserts that, as it’s written down, it is free from error. The rubber meets the road, then, in how we translate the word ‘porneia’ as found there, in a way that’s faithful to the original meaning of the inspired author. So, we’re back to square one: who’s reliable as a translator of that verse? You, personally? The Church?
Second, the word “porneia” is not translated at all as incest.
Really? Then please tell me what the meaning of porneia is in 1 Cor 5:1 –
*Ὅλως ἀκούεται ἐν ὑμῖν
πορνεία, καὶ τοιαύτη **πορνεία *
ἥτις οὐδὲ ἐν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν, ὥστε γυναῖκά τινα τοῦ πατρὸς ἔχειν.
“It is widely reported that there is **immorality **among you, and **immorality **of a kind not found even among pagans—a man living with his father’s wife.”
Tell me, please: what kind of immorality is it, when a man has sex with his step-mother, other than ‘incest’?
Porneia really has two meaning. It can refer to any sex outside of the marriage before the marriage. Second, after the marriage, it can refer to adultery or any immoral sex.
It has more meanings than that; but, I’m glad you agree that it’s necessary to accurately and authoritatively translate the meaning that’s meant by this word, in this context!
So the question is, which one was Matthew referring to or was he actually referring to both meanings?
Correct: this
is the salient question. Do you suggest that your interpretation is more authoritative than the Church’s? On what basis?
Also in question is what was the actual word/words that Jesus Christ used when he of course spoke in Aramaic?
No: if Matthew was written in Greek, it’s not a question of “did he get it right?”, unless what you’re asserting is that the inspired authors got it wrong. If so, then you’ve already departed from Christianity.
Did Matthew actually use the correct word?
Matthew used the word that he was
inspired to use. Do you disagree?
Did Jesus actually mean adultery
If this is all that Jesus meant, then why did He not use the word that
only means ‘adultery’? Your argument here is a non-starter – Jesus actually
does use this word in Matthew 5:32! Here’s the verse:
“But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) causes her to commit
adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits
adultery.”
Where we see unlawful, the word is ‘porneia’; where we see
adultery, the word is ‘moicheuó’. If – as you assert – Jesus only meant ‘adultery’, why would He not say “whoever divorces his wife (except for adultery) causes her to commit adultery”? I know you’re sensitive to word study … but if you want to make the case that Jesus is talking about ‘adultery’, why would He use the word in that sentence,
but not where you want Him to mean adultery?
since He in His infinite wisdom knew that … a woman or a man was not meant to live alone the rest of their lives.
Really? Can you show me a reference – either from Church teaching or from Scripture – that says that adults must be married for the entirety of their adult lives?
Sometimes I think Clinton must have been in the Catholic faith at one time since he used to like to argue the meaning of words.
Pot, meet kettle.
