H
Harpazo
Guest
Just curious, if you don’t agree with all of what Luther taught, why are you Lutheran?I am aware of Martin Luther’s position on this. I don’t agree with every thing he taught either. However we must remember he lived in the 16th century and for almost 1500 years everyone had been taught the story of Mary’s perpetual virginity. I believe that had Martin Luther researched Mariology as closely as he did indulgences, he would have also learned the truth about Mariology. After all, he believed Scripture was true and certainly there is much more evidence that Mary and Joseph had other chuldren than the opposite. There is absolutely nothing to support her perpetual virginity. We also have no writers of the first and second century writing about it. One writer mentions it but is not teaching it. He merely called her the virgin Mary. This belief came about long after Mary had died and at least a hundred or more years after.
If the early Church, who was taught and nourished by the Apostles believed it, I have no problem believing it.I agree with you that it is a non-issue. It doesn’t affect my salvation one iota but I worry about those who pray to her instead of the Father as directed in Scripture.
Of course this is your opinion on the matter. Christians for 1500+ years (that’s quite a while) believed it, read the Scriptures and writings of the fathers. If it was what you say, don’t you think others would have reached that conclusions much earlier than someone in say, the 1700s?Answering your points one by one…
- Scripture doesn’t even come close to supporting those beliefs. In fact, Scripture would have most anyone who studies it believing that there were other children. There is no mention of Joseph being older or having children when he married Mary. So that is a total wash. I believe your statements indicates there is some evidence of Mariology but not enough to explicitly support it. Is that what you mean? If so, please tell me what Scriptures do that.
A bit of history and linguistics is certainly useful in this regard, as well as reason. The Fathers of the Church compare the Theotokos to the Ark of the Covenant. If you know your Scripture as much as you claim, you’ll remember that the unworthy who touched the Ark were killed on the spot. Can you explain to me why ANYONE would touch the woman who held GOD in her womb? The whole “until” debate has been hased out ad nauseum in this thread. Perhaps you can look through some of the preceding pages?
- When Mary made the statement that she had never “known” a man, remember she was still unmarried and had just been told she would bear Jesus. This certainly was not after she was married. Perhaps she remained a virgin is you want to consider only sex but that would have been only until her marriage was consumated. And there again, we have mentions of other siblings and several mentions in Scripture of James, the Lord’s brother.
I feel you are mistaken on this. The consensus patrum, i.e. the consensus of the Fathers has taught us that St. Joseph had children from a prior marriage. Also, it is highly likely that those who are styled “brothers and sisters” are actually cousins. In Koine Greek and ancient Hebrew, there is no term for cousin or relative, so the term “adelphos/adelphi” was used instead. For instance, look at Lot and Abraham in the OT.JC
Also I feel you must be aware of the letter from Ignatius to John about Mary and James when he said everyone who knew James said he was the(to use my terms), the “spittin image of Jesus and he looks as if he came from the same womb.”
Again, you think that the woman who bore the God of the universe in her womb sinned?
- It is unlike Mary could have been of child-bearing age and never committed a sin. When she referred to Jesus as her Saviour, I feel certain she had been taught all about sin since she was a good Jewish girl.
Con’t…