M
Mishakel
Guest
My question was the point I was making. I know there’s very few passages that Catholicism has dogmatically defined. The evidence provided concerning all the parallels are refuted. Anyone can come up parallelism within scripture. It doesn’t make it absolute truth.
I would propose that if indeed Catholicism wants to adhere to all these parallels, why not give it a dogmatic definition?
As far as placing the bar higher, I don’t know what you mean. We have access to the original Greek. All discussion flows from there.
I would propose that if indeed Catholicism wants to adhere to all these parallels, why not give it a dogmatic definition?
As far as placing the bar higher, I don’t know what you mean. We have access to the original Greek. All discussion flows from there.