I am not going to quote anyone here since there are so many to respond to. When one interprets the Bible they must go back to the original languages, if you can not read Greek in this case then you must rely on a trustworthy commentary. I can assume that you will use a Catholic one, but a real scholar of the Word will seek varying views in commentaries to gain a proper understanding of the context of the passage. The key word here is context. In Bible translation there are several ways to interpret words based on the semantic range of the word. Context determines translation not your theology or the churches theology. The Bible is infallible we need to seek what it says in context and then adjust our own theology to fit the Bible, not try to fit the Bible to our theology.
Now that being said, The all in Romans 3:23 is intended to cover all. The Bible gives exception to Jesus by explicitly saying He is without sin. God gives Jesus exclusion from Romans 3:23 by the fact that Jesus is without sin according to Scripture. The Bible does not at any point ever say that Mary was sinless. This has nothing to do with original sin. One can argue that was the reason for the virgin birth, but that argument has gone on for centuries and will not be solved here. The question was does all include Mary, and according to Scripture she is included since there is no place that says Mary was sinless. The all does not include Jesus since Scripture is again clear He is without sin.
What you are trying to do when you argue that Mary is exempt is called an argument from silence. The argument for her being included is an argument from the text.
Are you sure about the word all? Let’s apply that same logic to the following verses:
Did all the world go after Christ in the following verse?
“… the whole world has gone after him” John 12:19
Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in the Jordan?
“All of Judea, including all the people of Jerusalem, went out to see and hear John. And when they confessed their sins, he baptized them in the Jordan River.” Mark
Did Caesar tax the people from India, China, and South America in the following verse? Matthew 2:3
“And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.” Luke 2:1
“When Herod the king heard this, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him”
Every single person in Jerusalem???
What about: “ … Then all the disciples left him [Jesus] and fled.” Matthew 26:56
John followed Christ all the way to the cross.
Did the whole world lieth in the wicked one in the following verse?
“Ye are of God, little children”, and the whole world lieth in the wicked one”. 1 John 5:19
Romans 15: “I myself am satisfied about you, my brethren, that you yourselves are full of goodness, filled with all knowledge, and able to instruct one another.”
Of course only God has “all” knowledge.
If “all” in the preceding verses allow for exceptions then surely “all” in Romans 3:23 can allow for exceptions too - yes, no, maybe?
Your thoughts friend?