V
Vico
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No, God wishes that “all join Him in heaven” for God has given angels and mankind free will: God has willed free will to them.God wills that we all join Him in heaven .
No, God wishes that “all join Him in heaven” for God has given angels and mankind free will: God has willed free will to them.God wills that we all join Him in heaven .
He wills it, too. God-willing doesn’t mean God-forcing.No, God wishes that “all join Him in heaven” for God has given angels and mankind free will: God has willed free will to them.
Perhaps. What I believe is: it is impossible for a single soul to be saved without grace and possible that everyone will, with grace. I’m not asserting that everyone has, but as long as the church does not condemn it, my expectation/hope is that God’s infinite grace will indeed overcome the worst possible sinners.Maybe what is being argued is how easy or difficult it is to attain Heaven?
In that sense it is called antecedent will where God gives actual graces that are sufficient that with free human cooperation a person can be saved.Vico:
He wills it, too. God-willing doesn’t mean God-forcing.No, God wishes that “all join Him in heaven” for God has given angels and mankind free will: God has willed free will to them.
Let’s see, Vico. Let’s say a person hears all the words above, but does not believe in God, doesn’t believe that the Church stands for morality, and doesn’t even believe in the concept of grace. He has evidence to back up all that he believes about these things. Indeed, he has made the observations that the same Church that has made these statements about faith and morals has done great evils in the world. Based on these things, he rejects anything to do with Christianity.A person can reject God (“close themselves off” to grace) fully aware that it contrary to the teachings of faith and morals, so there is knowledge of “what they are doing”.
I didn’t read it all, but I found it interesting also. The reason why I find this topic relevant is not so much about the question of hell being populated, but the images of God and man, and especially how we can see the significance of Christ’s understanding and forgiveness of the crowd who crucified Him.I found this article by an E.Orthodox VERY interesting!
That’s not true, though. The church teaches that those who die unrepentant are damned. That’s all.I think the Church teaches that “many” go to Hell,
An interpretation of his words.given Christ’s own words,
There are cases to consider: vincible ignorance and invincible ignorance. A person that deliberately acts against his conscience condemns himself. The explicit intention to offend God and break His law is not necessary rather the full and free consent of the will to an evil act is sufficient.…
Even if he has heard the entire catechism, is he “fully aware” about rejecting God?
And I replied with a scenario of a person closing themselves off. I asked if that person knows what they are doing, and you did not answer. What I am looking for is a “yes”, “no” or a “maybe” with some support that actually comes from your logical engagement with doctrine, not a mere recitation.OneSheep:
A person can reject God (“close themselves off” to grace) fully aware that it contrary to the teachings of faith and morals, so there is knowledge of “what they are doing”.And then, no one knows what they are doing when they close themselves off. (Luke 23:34)
I put the word many in quotes because I was quoting Christ: whatever He meant by many is what I mean.That’s not true, though. The church teaches that those who die unrepentant are damned.
I did answer, the case is maybe, as explained. I think in agreement with the doctrine I posted.I had a feeling that you would cite doctrine rather than give a yes or no answer, so that is why I asked for your opinion. I gave you some specific parameters and asked you if the person knows what they are doing, and you did not answer.
What you posted was this:
Vico:
And I replied with a scenario of a person closing themselves off. I asked if that person knows what they are doing, and you did not answer. What I am looking for is a “yes”, “no” or a “maybe” with some support that actually comes from your logical engagement with doctrine, not a mere recitation.OneSheep:
A person can reject God (“close themselves off” to grace) fully aware that it contrary to the teachings of faith and morals, so there is knowledge of “what they are doing”.And then, no one knows what they are doing when they close themselves off. (Luke 23:34)
Okay, let’s try to apply doctrine. Is it possible that this scenario I posted be “vincible ignorance”? Here it is again:I did answer, the case is maybe, as explained. I think in agreement with the doctrine I posted.
Let’s say a person hears all the words above, but does not believe in God, doesn’t believe that the Church stands for morality, and doesn’t even believe in the concept of grace. He has evidence to back up all that he believes about these things. Indeed, he has made the observations that the same Church that has made these statements about faith and morals has done great evils in the world. Based on these things, he rejects anything to do with Christianity.
Yes, in the example there is no mention of conscience.Vico:
Okay, let’s try to apply doctrine. Is it possible that this scenario I posted be “vincible ignorance”? Here it is again:I did answer, the case is maybe, as explained. I think in agreement with the doctrine I posted.
Let’s say a person hears all the words above, but does not believe in God, doesn’t believe that the Church stands for morality, and doesn’t even believe in the concept of grace. He has evidence to back up all that he believes about these things. Indeed, he has made the observations that the same Church that has made these statements about faith and morals has done great evils in the world. Based on these things, he rejects anything to do with Christianity.
So, since there is no mention of conscience, then the example I gave was an example of “vincible ignorance”? Am I understanding that correctly? The invincible/vincible teaching is so difficult to pin down.Yes, in the example there is no mention of conscience.
It could be either vincible or invincible ignorance or not ignorance at all.Vico:
So, since there is no mention of conscience, then the example I gave was an example of “vincible ignorance”? Am I understanding that correctly? The invincible/vincible teaching is so difficult to pin down.Yes, in the example there is no mention of conscience.
Sin (which is always voluntary) can be from malice, passion, or ignorance. (Catechism)1790 … Yet it can happen that moral conscience remains in ignorance and makes erroneous judgments …
1791 This ignorance can often be imputed to personal responsibility. This is the case when a man "takes little trouble to find out what is true and good, or when conscience is by degrees almost blinded through the habit of committing sin."59 In such cases, the person is culpable for the evil he commits.
1792 Ignorance of Christ and his Gospel, bad example given by others, enslavement to one’s passions, assertion of a mistaken notion of autonomy of conscience, rejection of the Church’s authority and her teaching, lack of conversion and of charity: these can be at the source of errors of judgment in moral conduct.
1799 Faced with a moral choice, conscience can make either a right judgment in accordance with reason and the divine law or, on the contrary, an erroneous judgment that departs from them.
Okay, let me add something to the mix here to help clarify.It could be either vincible or invincible ignorance or not ignorance at all.
Since it is not in concord with the dogma of faith of the Catholic Church the person makes an error which could mean that the conscience is not properly formed, yet it is not difficult to become properly informed. I could not conclude that it was from ignorance for the person may rather willfully hold contempt for the Church. Members of the Church are not perfect, as always.Vico:
Okay, let me add something to the mix here to help clarify.It could be either vincible or invincible ignorance or not ignorance at all.
The man decides that believing what the Church says about rejecting God is unconscionable, for from his observation what the Church does in the world is evil. He makes no effort to enlighten himself further, because he has seen what his conscience tells him are very bad behaviors on the part of the Church.
So, is that “invincible” or is it “vincible”?
How can one appreciate the evilness of an act without intending at once to reject/offend goodness per se? The distinction is incoherent. To the extent a person does not intend to offend God, they do not appreciate (fully) the evilness of what they choose. After all, what makes anything at all evil, is precisely its deviation from God who is goodness itself, as evil is merely the privation of Goodness (which is God), as St. Augustine taught. If a person does not understand that they are rejecting that, they do not understand the evilness of their action in any complete sense. So the distinction is literally illogical and impossible.The explicit intention to offend God and break His law is not necessary rather the full and free consent of the will to an evil act is sufficient.
Right, but he doesn’t want to inform his conscience. So that might not be ignorance at all?Since it is not in concord with the dogma of faith of the Catholic Church the person makes an error which could mean that the conscience is not properly formed, yet it is not difficult to become properly informed.
So if he willfully holds contempt for the church, which I am going to rephrase as wants to hold contempt for the Church, then he is not ignorant?I could not conclude that it was from ignorance for the person may rather willfully hold contempt for the Church.