Meaning of Luke 1:28

[Scrooge63]

I am conflicted with the various translations of this passage. What is the “Catholic Answer” regarding Luke 1:28?

 

[Scrooge63]

I am conflicted with the various translations of this passage. What is the “Catholic Answer” regarding Luke 1:28?

 

[bmullins]

[bibledrb]Luke 1:28[/bibledrb]

First Hail, or Rejoice! crowns the theme of joy and gladness that surrounds Luke’s narrative. This echoes the call to rejoice that permeates the Old Testament passages that mention the Daughter of Zion. The prophets often refer to Mother Jerusalem, whose faithful offspring will be rejoicing in the coming Messianic kingdom. (c.f. Joel 2:23-24; Zeph 3:14-17; Zech 9:9)

Mary is chosen by God to be the virgin mother of the Messiah. She is greeted with the same word because she is the example of faithful Israel and the full recipient of God’s messianic blessing.

Notice the word’s “full of grace”. This is the only time that an angel addresses someone by a title instead of by their name in the entire bible. The words used here are very telling, unlike the way Luke described Steven in Acts 6:8 (pleres charitos), Luke uses a different term here. (kecharitomene). This indicates that God had already blessed Mary before the announcement, before she ever accepted, indicating that she has been and is now filled with divine life. This very passage points to the “Immaculate Conception”. God is her savior in the most perfect way possible, he preserved her from sin and concupiscence, from the very point of her conception.

490 To become the mother of the Savior, Mary "was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role."132 The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as “full of grace”.133 In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God’s grace.

491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, “full of grace” through God,134 was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:

The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.135
492 The “splendor of an entirely unique holiness” by which Mary is “enriched from the first instant of her conception” comes wholly from Christ: she is “redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son”.136 The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person “in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” and chose her “in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love”.137

493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God “the All-Holy” (Panagia), and celebrate her as “free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature”.138 By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.

722
The Holy Spirit prepared Mary by his grace. It was fitting that the mother of him in whom "the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily"102 should herself be “full of grace.” She was, by sheer grace, conceived without sin as the most humble of creatures, the most capable of welcoming the inexpressible gift of the Almighty. It was quite correct for the angel Gabriel to greet her as the “Daughter of Zion”: "Rejoice."103 It is the thanksgiving of the whole People of God, and thus of the Church, which Mary in her canticle104 lifts up to the Father in the Holy Spirit while carrying within her the eternal Son.

 

[bmullins]

[bibledrb]Luke 1:28[/bibledrb]

First Hail, or Rejoice! crowns the theme of joy and gladness that surrounds Luke’s narrative. This echoes the call to rejoice that permeates the Old Testament passages that mention the Daughter of Zion. The prophets often refer to Mother Jerusalem, whose faithful offspring will be rejoicing in the coming Messianic kingdom. (c.f. Joel 2:23-24; Zeph 3:14-17; Zech 9:9)

Mary is chosen by God to be the virgin mother of the Messiah. She is greeted with the same word because she is the example of faithful Israel and the full recipient of God’s messianic blessing.

Notice the word’s “full of grace”. This is the only time that an angel addresses someone by a title instead of by their name in the entire bible. The words used here are very telling, unlike the way Luke described Steven in Acts 6:8 (pleres charitos), Luke uses a different term here. (kecharitomene). This indicates that God had already blessed Mary before the announcement, before she ever accepted, indicating that she has been and is now filled with divine life. This very passage points to the “Immaculate Conception”. God is her savior in the most perfect way possible, he preserved her from sin and concupiscence, from the very point of her conception.

490 To become the mother of the Savior, Mary "was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role."132 The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as “full of grace”.133 In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God’s grace.

491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, “full of grace” through God,134 was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:

The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.135
492 The “splendor of an entirely unique holiness” by which Mary is “enriched from the first instant of her conception” comes wholly from Christ: she is “redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son”.136 The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person “in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” and chose her “in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love”.137

493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God “the All-Holy” (Panagia), and celebrate her as “free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature”.138 By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.

722
The Holy Spirit prepared Mary by his grace. It was fitting that the mother of him in whom "the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily"102 should herself be “full of grace.” She was, by sheer grace, conceived without sin as the most humble of creatures, the most capable of welcoming the inexpressible gift of the Almighty. It was quite correct for the angel Gabriel to greet her as the “Daughter of Zion”: "Rejoice."103 It is the thanksgiving of the whole People of God, and thus of the Church, which Mary in her canticle104 lifts up to the Father in the Holy Spirit while carrying within her the eternal Son.

 

[Trevor_Stamm]

bringyou.to/apologetics/a116.htm great article for proper translation of Kecharitomene (full of grace), if that is your concern.

 

[Nita]

The following Church document will give a full explanation of our teaching regarding Mary being conceived without original sin (that is, “full of grace” - Luke 1:28)
papalencyclicals.net/Pius09/p9ineff.htm

If you scroll about halfway down, you’ll come to this paragraph which deals specifically with the Scripture verse in Luke 1:28.

**The Annunciation **

When the Fathers and writers of the Church meditated on the fact that the most Blessed Virgin was, in the name and by order of God himself, proclaimed full of grace[22] by the Angel Gabriel when he announced her most sublime dignity of Mother of God, they thought that this singular and solemn salutation, never heard before, showed that the Mother of God is the seat of all divine graces and is adorned with all gifts of the Holy Spirit. To them Mary is an almost infinite treasury, an inexhaustible abyss of these gifts, to such an extent that she was never subject to the curse and was, together with her Son, the only partaker of perpetual benediction. Hence she was worthy to hear Elizabeth, inspired by the Holy Spirit, exclaim: “Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb.”[23]

Hope this helps in some way.

 

[Scrooge63]

Yeah… you can produce all kinds of Sacred Tradition that points to the Divinity of Our Holy Mother. I am referring to the differences in the Bible translations the Church uses here in America. I am up against some very astute folks that know their Bible so I cannot baffle them with BS. The two differing translations are quite an obstacle. Help me overcome this.

Here in America we have two translations: the NAB - the Lectionary we all hear each and every Sunday that has been adopted by the United States Council of Catholic Bishops (USCCB) and the Revised Standard Version – Catholic Edition, that is marketed by Ignatius Press in cooperation with Catholic Answers. You may dispute this… but why can’t I order a copy of a NAB Bible from the CAF Shop? Is CAF not faithful to and true to the Magisterium in this regard? I’ve listened to Catholic Answers Live and had heard some uncharitable thing regarding the NAB/Lectionary translation. Doesn’t the NAB carry the “imprimatur”?

The NAB adopted by the USCCB and most English translations read Luke 1:28 to be “Hail, most Favored One”. How do I explain that Catholic devotion to our Blessed Lady to non-Catholics where almost every Bible translation does not read “Hail Mary, full of Grace but “highly favored one”?

 

[bmullins]

I am up against some very astute folks that know their Bible so I cannot baffle them with BS. ?

Sacred Tradition is not BS. We gave you the answer, not just in Tradition but in Scripture. I take it you’re not Catholic?

 

[Trevor_Stamm]

Yeah… you can produce all kinds of Sacred Tradition that points to the Divinity of Our Holy Mother.

Hey, whoa, hit the breaks there. Nowhere in any Church teaching does it proclaim Divinity for Blessed Mary. Where did you get that?

I am referring to the differences in the Bible translations the Church uses here in America. I am up against some very astute folks that know their Bible so I cannot baffle them with BS. The two differing translations are quite an obstacle. Help me overcome this.

BS? Being a convert on systematic theology and hardly ever read Sacred Scripture prior to conversion, I really do get a great laugh at these “bible alone” defenses of the Church. It’s like you’re walking into a boxing ring asking only to use one hand while your feet are tied.

Here in America we have two translations: the NAB - the Lectionary we all hear each and every Sunday that has been adopted by the United States Council of Catholic Bishops (USCCB) and the Revised Standard Version – Catholic Edition, that is marketed by Ignatius Press in cooperation with Catholic Answers. You may dispute this… but why can’t I order a copy of a NAB Bible from the CAF Shop? Is CAF not faithful to and true to the Magisterium in this regard? I’ve listened to Catholic Answers Live and had heard some uncharitable thing regarding the NAB/Lectionary translation. Doesn’t the NAB carry the “imprimatur”?

The NAB adopted by the USCCB and most English translations read Luke 1:28 to be “Hail, most Favored One”. How do I explain that Catholic devotion to our Blessed Lady to non-Catholics where almost every Bible translation does not read “Hail Mary, full of Grace but “highly favored one”?

vatican.va/holy_father/pius_xii/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-xii_enc_30091943_divino-afflante-spiritu_en.html The Vulgate received many praises from this Encyclical by Pope Pius XII. Paragraph 21 in particular stated it is “free from any error whatsoever in matters of faith and morals.”

And Council of Trent made this declaration concerning the Vulgate,

“Moreover, the same Holy Council . . . ordains and declares that the old Latin Vulgate Edition, which, in use for so many hundred years, has been approved by the Church, be in public lectures, disputatious, sermons and expositions held as authentic, and so no one dare or presume under any pretext whatsoever to reject it.” (Fourth Session, April 8, 1546).

I’ll obey the Magisterium, Sacred Tradition, and Sacred Scripture that Kecharitomene (greek), grátia pléna (latin), in Luke 1:28 is translated as “full of grace.”

 

[NeedImprovement]

The Angel Gabriel’s words were “Hail , full of grace” .

In order to express our Blessed Mother in terms of Divinity …doh2, St. Gabriel would have had to have said , “Hail source of grace” or “Hail origin of grace” … looks simple enough to understand.

Even now, after her Assumption , we neither refer to Her as source nor* origin *of grace, but rather as Mediatrix (highlights mine):
Father John Hardon:

**MEDIATRIX. **

A title of the Blessed Virgin as mediator of grace. There are two aspects of this mediation. It is certain in Catholic theology that, since Mary gave birth to the Redeemer, who is source of all grace, she is in this way the channel of all graces to mankind. But it is only probable, as a legitimate opinion, that since Mary’s Assumption into heaven no grace is received by humans without her actual intercessory co-operation.

On the first level of mediation, Mary freely co-operated with God in consenting to the Incarnation, giving birth to her Son and thus sharing with him in spirit the labors of his passion and death. Yet Christ alone truly offered the sacrifice of atonement on the Cross. Mary gave him moral support in this action. She is therefore not entitled to the name “priest,” as several Roman documents legislate. As explained by the Council of Florence in 1441, Christ “conquered the enemy of the human race alone” (Denzinger, 1347). In the same way he alone acquired the grace of redemption for the whole human race, including Mary. Her part in the objective redemption, therefore, was indirect and remote, and derived from her voluntary devotion to the service of Christ. Under the Cross she suffered and sacrificed with him, but subordinate to him in such a way that all the efficacy of her oblation depended on that of her Son.

On the second stage of mediation, Mary co-operates by her maternal intercession in applying Christ’s redemptive grace to human beings, called the subjective redemption. This does not imply that the faithful must pray for all graces through Mary, nor that her intercession is inherently necessary for the distribution of divine blessing, but that, according to God’s special ordinance, the graces merited by Christ are conferred through the actual intercessory mediation of his mother. Recent popes and the Second Vatican Council have spoken in favor of this type of mediation, which finds support in patristic tradition.

 

[rdscheirer]

If we blame the “fall” in the garden on Eve why woulnd’t God restore us through a woman-Mary.

Seems like all through the Bible he takes and restores through the same types.

 

[bogeydogg]

If we blame the “fall” in the garden on Eve why woulnd’t God restore us through a woman-Mary.

Seems like all through the Bible he takes and restores through the same types.

I think the fall is through Adam not Eve.

St Paul says Eve was deceived and fell (venial sin) but Adam chose (Mortal sin).

Just saying

God Bless

 

[wiggbuggie]

does the original greek say full of grace or highly favored one?

 

[bogeydogg]

does the original greek say full of grace or highly favored one?

the Greek is somewhat ambiguous but I am not sure it matters. I would think anyone highly favored, especially as Mary was, would be also full of grace.

God Bless

 

[Gorgias]

the Greek is somewhat ambiguous but I am not sure it matters. I would think anyone highly favored, especially as Mary was, would be also full of grace.

God Bless

Ambiguous? Really? What about kecharitomene is ambiguous (except, maybe, that the Latin “full of grace” (gratia plena) doesn’t really capture its meaning…!)

 

[bogeydogg]

Ambiguous? Really? What about kecharitomene is ambiguous (except, maybe, that the Latin “full of grace” (gratia plena) doesn’t really capture its meaning…!)

Yup

because the word does mean you who are continually in the highest favor.

SO Jerome’s translation is not wrong, but neither are those who say “Highly favored one”. Although I think highly favored one actually misses the stress of what the angel is saying and protestants use it as a sort escape hatch.

I myself have no problem with “Full of grace”.

God Bless

 

[NotWorthy]

If we blame the “fall” in the garden on Eve why woulnd’t God restore us through a woman-Mary.

Seems like all through the Bible he takes and restores through the same types.

I think Justin Martyr and Ireneaus would both agree with you!

 

[NotWorthy]

I think the fall is through Adam not Eve.

St Paul says Eve was deceived and fell (venial sin) but Adam chose (Mortal sin).

Just saying

God Bless

Yes, but don’t jump to conclusions on his words.

By listening to the fallen angel, Satan, Eve’s disobedience led to Adam’s Sin… and hence, the Fall of Mankind.

By listening to the words of the angel, Gabriel, Mary’s obedience led to the Incarnation of Jesus… and hence, the Redemption of Mankind!

That’s why Catholics, since at least the 2nd century, have called Mary the New Eve!

 

[NotWorthy]

Ambiguous? Really? What about kecharitomene is ambiguous (except, maybe, that the Latin “full of grace” (gratia plena) doesn’t really capture its meaning…!)

I think the ambiguity lies in the fact that the word was not known before this time, and I don’t believe its ever been used in any other passage, other than alluding back to the Word used in reference to Mary.

Christians throughout the centuries have had a similar dilemma with the words “Give us this day our daily bread…”. This also is a word unknown before Jesus’ use of it in the Sermon on the Mount (Matt 6?). The word best translates to “supersubstantial”.

 

[John7]

I think the ambiguity lies in the fact that the word was not known before this time, and I don’t believe its ever been used in any other passage, other than alluding back to the Word used in reference to Mary.

closest (one letter difference) is in Sirach 18.17 (+RSV)

οὐκ ἰδοὺ λόγος ὑπὲρ δόμα ἀγαθόν;
Lo, is not a word better than a gift?

καὶ ἀμφότερα παρὰ ἀνδρὶ κεχαριτωμένῳ.
But both are with a gracious man.

inflected slightly different
κεχαριτωμένη - voc fem 1.28
κεχαριτωμένῳ - dat masc 18.17

DRB 18:17 Lo, is not a word better than a gift? but both are with a justified man.
NAB 18:17 Indeed does not a word count more than a good gift? But both are offered by a kind person.

Clem Vulg 18:17 Nonne ecce verbum super datum bonum? sed utraque cum homine justificato.