Meaning of Luke 1:28

[Gorgias]

I think the ambiguity lies in the fact that the word was not known before this time

I’m not sure I understand what this means. Greek is an inflected language; so, even though this particular form doesn’t show up (that is, a perfect participle middle/passive nominative feminine singular), the word shows up elsewhere in Scripture!

, and I don’t believe its ever been used in any other passage, other than alluding back to the Word used in reference to Mary.

Again, I’m not really sure this holds:

In Ephesians we have the same word (in a different inflection): ἐχαρίτωσεν.

And, in Sirach 18:17, we have:

οὐκ ἰδοὺ λόγος ὑπὲρ δόμα ἀγαθόν καὶ ἀμφότερα παρὰ ἀνδρὶ κεχαριτωμένῳ

(“Lo, is not a word better than a gift? But both are with a justified man.”)

So, I’m not really getting what you’re saying here…

Christians throughout the centuries have had a similar dilemma with the words “Give us this day our daily bread…”. This also is a word unknown before Jesus’ use of it in the Sermon on the Mount (Matt 6?). The word best translates to “supersubstantial”.

That’s a whole different discussion, of course, and it centers on whether you look at etymologically (ἐπι–ούσιον, or “upon” “the substance”) or as a cognate of ἐπιοῦσα (“the following day”). Anyway, whole 'nother thing…!

 

[Gorgias]

LOL – Sorry for echoing you, there, John7… I just noticed that I pretty much put the same content up there that you did, about 10 minutes later! :doh2:

 

[PeterGStanley]

This is no ordinary greeting. In fact, no one in salvation history had ever been addressed like this before. And note that the angel does not say “Hail, Mary, full of grace.” Gabriel says, “Hail, full of grace.” The angel addresses Mary not by her personal name, but with the title “full of grace.”
The Greek word in this passage commonly translated “full of grace” is kecharitomene. This word is in a past perfect participle form, indicating an action that began in the past and continues in the present. It literally can be translated “you who have been and continue to be graced.” In fact, the same verb is used in Ephesians 1:6–7 to describe not simply grace in the general sense of God’s showing his favor on someone, but the particular kind of divine favor that is associated with forgiveness of sins and redemption. Therefore, it is as if the angel is saying to Mary, “Hail, you who have been and continue to be graced . . . Hail, you who already have received the forgiveness of sins and the gift of redemption.”

 

[trebiasgreg]

This is no ordinary greeting. In fact, no one in salvation history had ever been addressed like this before. And note that the angel does not say “Hail, Mary, full of grace.” Gabriel says, “Hail, full of grace.” The angel addresses Mary not by her personal name, but with the title “full of grace.”
The Greek word in this passage commonly translated “full of grace” is kecharitomene. This word is in a past perfect participle form, indicating an action that began in the past and continues in the present. It literally can be translated “you who have been and continue to be graced.” In fact, the same verb is used in Ephesians 1:6–7 to describe not simply grace in the general sense of God’s showing his favor on someone, but the particular kind of divine favor that is associated with forgiveness of sins and redemption. Therefore, it is as if the angel is saying to Mary, “Hail, you who have been and continue to be graced . . . Hail, you who already have received the forgiveness of sins and the gift of redemption.”

Mary the Immaculate Conception, is concieved without sin, she is exempted from sins thereby does not requires forgiveness of sin. Full of grace or highly favoured one implies all necessary graces for a human for all times. This salutation all goes back to His Son, Jesus, who is exalted above all continues to be exalted and glorified when His mother, our mother, is continually praised/venerated by the Church, just like the Angel in the passage.

Peace be to you

 

[A_G]

I am conflicted with the various translations of this passage. What is the “Catholic Answer” regarding Luke 1:28?

Luke 1:28 - “Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with you.”

St. Gabriel the Archangel (who is a messenger of God), said these words as he came to The Blessed Virgin Mary. When we say the “Hail Mary” or pray the Rosary, we are speaking the words of God.

The phrase “full of grace” is translated from the Greek word “kecharitomene,” which is a very special title given to Mary, describing a perfection of grace given from God. She has been perfected in grace by God. She is favored by God to be the mother of the Son of the Most High, the Messiah. The phrase “full of grace” is only used to describe one other person - Jesus Christ in John 1:14. *“The Lord is with thee,” *is a statement of the mighty power of God being present and upon Mary.

 

[PeterGStanley]

Luke 1:28 - “Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with you.”

St. Gabriel the Archangel (who is a messenger of God), said these words as he came to The Blessed Virgin Mary. When we say the “Hail Mary” or pray the Rosary, we are speaking the words of God.

The phrase “full of grace” is translated from the Greek word “kecharitomene,” which is a very special title given to Mary, describing a perfection of grace given from God. She has been perfected in grace by God. She is favored by God to be the mother of the Son of the Most High, the Messiah. The phrase “full of grace” is only used to describe one other person - Jesus Christ in John 1:14. *“The Lord is with thee,” *is a statement of the mighty power of God being present and upon Mary.

In the gospel of Luke the angel doesn’t say Hail Mary - He says Hail - Full of Grace