A
Abigail
Guest
Mary loves God, prays daily, obeys the Church, and has been going to Mass regularly for 50 years. She has studied the catechism and believes she has an informed conscience. She lives in a rural area, and the closest parish is over 30 minutes away. It is a struggle for her to go because the Mass is early, and she dislikes the music, but she tries to do it with a good will.
Sunday morning, Mary is tired and irritable, but not “sick” enough that she wouldn’t go to work. She just can’t face the early rising, the long drive on bad roads, and the chaotic atmosphere at the Church. She loves God, and doesn’t intend to stop going to Mass. She just needs a day off, and doesn’t have the mental strength to make the necessary sacrifice. She decides to skip Mass, and to confess before receiving Holy Communion.
Has Mary sinned mortally? She knew she was obligated to go to Mass, she could have gone, and decided not to go. That seems to fit the formula of grave matter + sufficient knowledge and reflection + full consent of the will.
Is succumbing to human weakness the equivalent of intentionally rejecting God, or does the desire not to sin (although overcome by weakness) vitiate full consent?
Does her decision completely cut her off from God and his grace?
Has Mary sinned venially? What if Mary concluded, based on what she had studied, that her sin was venial because she wasn’t refusing to go to Mass because she was defying Church authority or because she didn’t want to worship God. She continues to go to Mass and receive Holy Communion for the rest of her life.
Does Mary’s belief that her sin is venial make it so?
If not, is her continued practice of the faith void of all grace?
Or, has Mary not sinned at all? What if Mary considered the above and couldn’t come to a conclusion? She just wasn’t sure whether skipping Mass under the circumstances is a mortal or venial sin, or a sin at all. Perhaps she was so tired she really was “sick.” Maybe driving while “tired” is something she shouldn’t do. It was early in the morning when she was trying to make her decision, and she wasn’t completely awake. She thought she might be making excuses for herself, but her priest had told her, “Mary, you tend to be scrupulous. If you aren’t sure something is a mortal in, it isn’t.” She isn’t sure.
There’s something disturbing to me about having to go through these mental gymnastics to answer a basic question, and coming up with answers that range from serious mortal sin to no sin at all. PLEASE help me get a better understanding of the underlying principles here. If sin is not determined by intent, it would be possible to sin by mistake, which I understand is not possible. But if the only element is intent, how can there be sin in the objective sense?
PLEASE provide citations in support of your arguments.
Thanks in advance.
Sunday morning, Mary is tired and irritable, but not “sick” enough that she wouldn’t go to work. She just can’t face the early rising, the long drive on bad roads, and the chaotic atmosphere at the Church. She loves God, and doesn’t intend to stop going to Mass. She just needs a day off, and doesn’t have the mental strength to make the necessary sacrifice. She decides to skip Mass, and to confess before receiving Holy Communion.
Has Mary sinned mortally? She knew she was obligated to go to Mass, she could have gone, and decided not to go. That seems to fit the formula of grave matter + sufficient knowledge and reflection + full consent of the will.
Is succumbing to human weakness the equivalent of intentionally rejecting God, or does the desire not to sin (although overcome by weakness) vitiate full consent?
Does her decision completely cut her off from God and his grace?
Has Mary sinned venially? What if Mary concluded, based on what she had studied, that her sin was venial because she wasn’t refusing to go to Mass because she was defying Church authority or because she didn’t want to worship God. She continues to go to Mass and receive Holy Communion for the rest of her life.
Does Mary’s belief that her sin is venial make it so?
If not, is her continued practice of the faith void of all grace?
Or, has Mary not sinned at all? What if Mary considered the above and couldn’t come to a conclusion? She just wasn’t sure whether skipping Mass under the circumstances is a mortal or venial sin, or a sin at all. Perhaps she was so tired she really was “sick.” Maybe driving while “tired” is something she shouldn’t do. It was early in the morning when she was trying to make her decision, and she wasn’t completely awake. She thought she might be making excuses for herself, but her priest had told her, “Mary, you tend to be scrupulous. If you aren’t sure something is a mortal in, it isn’t.” She isn’t sure.
There’s something disturbing to me about having to go through these mental gymnastics to answer a basic question, and coming up with answers that range from serious mortal sin to no sin at all. PLEASE help me get a better understanding of the underlying principles here. If sin is not determined by intent, it would be possible to sin by mistake, which I understand is not possible. But if the only element is intent, how can there be sin in the objective sense?
PLEASE provide citations in support of your arguments.
Thanks in advance.