V
Vico
Guest
Aquinas didn’t say that by “predestination” is meant soley election to glory. It could also mean election to (sufficient grace). Take the example of a dog. It decides to run over to its master, it is not a machine, but it doesn’t have free will. You are saying humans are dogs
For the readers: he is saying that God can infallibly move the will to do something even though the action will be free.* For the reader*: he hasn’t explained how this is not a blatant contradiction in two philosophical concepts
The the last post, no, that is not what St. Aquinas was writing, rather there is free will for God “He does not allot it without election”.Vico, you are saying that God can decide “I want John Doe to convert” and ensure/know without reference to free will that this will happen.
The grace is actual grace, however that could be either sufficient or efficacious.
Summa Theologica has for Q23, A4, 1, regarding “Whether the predestined are chosen by God”, that election is implied for both grace and glory.
Reply to Objection 1. If the communication of the divine goodness in general be considered, God communicates His goodness without election; inasmuch as there is nothing which does not in some way share in His goodness, as we said above (Question 6, Article 4). But if we consider the communication of this or that particular good, He does not allot it without election; since He gives certain goods to some men, which He does not give to others. Thus in the conferring of grace and glory election is implied.