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1Tim215Mommy
Guest
Good question. Answers anyone?
Muslim asked, "If Jesus is God, then why did his Apostle John write in his Gospel, after seeing and spending years with Jesus, that 'No one has ever s
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cath4alltime
Guest
No one has seen God as He truly is
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IgnatianPhilo
Guest
Because the visible body of Christ was his human nature and not his divine nature. The hypostatic union.
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Judas_Thaddeus
Guest
God, as to his Eternal Nature, is invisible.
So God put on a veil of visible flesh/bone. (Doesn’t mean people saw God)
God is still invisible, no one can see God.
Also, Jesus was speaking in the past tense, so it’s possible also that he meant no one has
seen God 100% Full Glory before, but then Christ came to “make known the Father.” Philip
asked Jesus to show him the Father, then Jesus said “When you’ve seen me you’ve seen
the Father,” meaning that you see or perceive the Father through the Life and Teachings of
Jesus Christ, God in the Flesh.
As for seeing Jesus almost 2000 years ago, seeing his body, well in that context
the Muslim would bring up, that’s all that was seen. Not God in ALL HIS GLORY,
but only that tabernacle of flesh and bone.
So God put on a veil of visible flesh/bone. (Doesn’t mean people saw God)
God is still invisible, no one can see God.
Also, Jesus was speaking in the past tense, so it’s possible also that he meant no one has
seen God 100% Full Glory before, but then Christ came to “make known the Father.” Philip
asked Jesus to show him the Father, then Jesus said “When you’ve seen me you’ve seen
the Father,” meaning that you see or perceive the Father through the Life and Teachings of
Jesus Christ, God in the Flesh.
As for seeing Jesus almost 2000 years ago, seeing his body, well in that context
the Muslim would bring up, that’s all that was seen. Not God in ALL HIS GLORY,
but only that tabernacle of flesh and bone.
J
Judas_Thaddeus
Guest
Like this one better than mine, shorter and simpler.
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1Tim215Mommy
Guest
Jesus is not to be considered fully God by Orthodox Christians!? The council declared Mary as Theotokos to confirm that Jesus is fully God and fully human. The human and divine natures of Jesus are fully united - hypostatic Union not hypostatic Separation. Jesus is not God spiritually and human physically rather Jesus is human physically and spiritually + Jesus is God physically and spiritually.
Everyone agrees that Jesus is human, but Christians are either right or wrong that Jesus is also God.
Why would the Apostle John write that neither he nor anyone else ever saw God if Jesus is actually Who we say He claimed to be: God?
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concretecamper
Guest
“The text then, No man has seen God at any time, applies not to the Father only, but also to the Son: for He, as Paul said, is the Image of the invisible God; but He who is the Image of the Invisible , must Himself also be invisible”…St John Chrysostom
So, as it has already been posted, the outward appearance we see is Jesus’ humanity.
Posted from Catholic.com App for Android
So, as it has already been posted, the outward appearance we see is Jesus’ humanity.
Posted from Catholic.com App for Android
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Judas_Thaddeus
Guest
'nother great answer! :d
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Servant19
Guest
I’m glad this thread was started!
If there is FULL hypostatic union, why did Jesus make a distinction between Himself and God?
If there is FULL hypostatic union, why did Jesus make a distinction between Himself and God?
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LBJ12
Guest
Jesus saith to him: Have I been so long a time with you; and have you not known me? Philip, he that seeth me seeth the Father also. How sayest thou, Shew us the Father?
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Judas_Thaddeus
Guest
“God” in the New Testament more often refers to God the Father. So Jesus was making
a distinction between himself and the Father, and since Jesus is so obviously God him-
self, yet not the Father, there is evidence for the Trinity.
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MartinJordan
Guest
Why is,A Muslim,using a Bible verse when they say the Bible is corrupted? Intellectually dishonest imo and an insult to intelligence. :tsktsk:
MJ
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LBJ12
Guest
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words which I speak to you I do not speak from myself; but the Father who abides in me, he does the works.
meltzerboy
New member
My understanding is that Jesus made a distinction, but not a separation, between Himself and G-d the Father since He was said to be G-d the Son, but still one G-d. That suggests a binary relationship which later “became” Trinitarian. (There were Binitarians in those early years.) Jesus is supposed to be at once fully human and fully divine: a hypostatic union, but nonetheless a distinct Person from G-d the Father with regard to the Son’s function rather than essence.
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Linusthe2nd
Guest
John was talking about God as He exists in eternity, not as He is Personified in Jesus Christ. Yes Jesus was God, the Second Person of the Trinity. It is He who became man.
Linus2nd
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adawgj
Guest
" And as he was yet speaking behold a bright cloud over-shadowed them. And lo, a voice out of the cloud, saying: This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased: hear ye Him."
Matt. 17:5.
Matt. 17:5.
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Servant19
Guest
So is there a distinction between God, and the Father in Catholicism?
What is the difference between God and the Father?
meltzerboy
New member
According to the Trinity, G-d the Father is one of the three Persons of G-d, together with G-d the Son and G-d the Holy Spirit. They are distinct, but not separate, Persons with regard to their function but not their essence. They are all One G-d, not separate parts that form One G-d.
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rcwitness
Guest
God took the form of man and hid Himself within. This is in order to need faith to believe and trust who God really is, in His work. Therefore man in our limitations of flesh are able to truly excercise faith like God. We who believe Jesus to be Equal with God, truly know God more than someone who thinks they are elavating Him above Jesus.
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Judas_Thaddeus
Guest
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