Muslim Woman;4131268:
Salaam/peace;
Good to know that present days Jews are not committing the same mistake Jews in the past did .
Prophet Muhammed (p) had a dialogue with Jewish leaders. He asked them why they consider Ezra as son of God.
Ans was like that when Jews lost their holy book , it was Prophet Ezra (p) who recited the whole book from memory .
Thus Jews were able to get their holy book back . So , out of respect & thinking that he must be son of God , otherwise how could he knew the whole book , they gave him the title ’ son of God.
Then Prophet Muhammed (p) asked , if just recalling the holy book from memory can make a human being son of God , then what should be the status of Prophet Musa/ Moses (p) on whom the whole book was revealed ?
Why Jews don’t think of Moses (p) also as son of God or more than that as surely he is more honorable to receive the book from God. Jews had no answer of that .
The Jews call Ezra/ `Uzair a son of Allah,
and the Christians call Christ the son of Allah.
That is the saying from their mouth; (In this) they are intimate; what the Unbelievers of the old used to say.
Allah’s curse be on them: how they are deluded away from the truth.
[Qur’an 9:30]
**It is also saddening to see that that you are repeating the mistakes of your pagan prophet by slandering Jews.

**
Your argument has no evidence and is a fallacious one since it is apparently a story fabricated to evade the mistakes of Mohammad’s scribes.
This fabricated story presented by you fails to answer the following questions:
1) Why does ONLY one verse of the Koran (and that verse is of a very late date) accuse Jews of calling Esdra the Son of God? Why is the Koran unaware of this so-called mistake until the late Medina period?
2) How come the Koran draws parallelism between Jews and Christians with regard to the use of the title “Son of God”? Your fabricated story undermines its own credibility by claiming that Jews called Esdra Son of God out of respect whereas Christians used the same term to signify Jesus’ divinity. Thus, the parallelism in the Koran has no sense due to the different meanings attached to the same title by different groups. It is irrational for the Koran to criticise Jews and Christians alike although their supposed mistakes are not identical.
3) Why does the Koran attribute this so-called mistake to all Jews of its time rather than to a certain group of Jewish believers (sect) ? History rebuts this claim of the Koran as calling Esdra or anyone the Son of God has never been an official tenet or dogma of Judaism.
4) Why do the authors of the Koran insist on using a present tense marker while denouncing Jews and Christians alike if your theory that the alleged mistake of the Jews remained in the past unlike that of Christians?
5) Why does the Koran never refer to Esdra with regard to his significance in Jewish history? How do we know for sure that the Koran confirms the Jewish belief that Esdra could recite the Torah and helped Jews retrieve their Scripture?