Muslims, who is Harun?

  • Thread starter Thread starter dranzal
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Okay.

Is it the same man or two different men with the same name?

Thanks.
 
I don’t see any reason to think they would be referring to two different people.
 
Thanks.

Does that mean that Islam teaches that Maryam (Jesus’ mother) is Aaron’s (and Moses’) sister?
 
We know the muslim answer, and it is false.

They will say that people at the time of mary referred to pious people as the siblings of pious ancestors.

So jews called pious mary the sister of pious aaron (the brother of moses)

Ofcourse this is sheer nonsense, Mohammed made a mistake, he was corrected by nearby christians.

Remember this is an early sura, he realised his mistake early and never made the same mistake again.

This is just another example of the manmade origins of the quran, taken together with **the “evil eye” pagan **concept that allah teaches in the quran.
 
The ‘sister’ in 19:28 isn’t literal, it probably means that Mary was a Levite (which ties in with the Messianic prophecy in Zechariah 12). A similar question to yours was put before Muhammad by the Christians of Najran, and his response it recorded in Sahih Muslim (link).
 
mohammeds explanation was weak kads.

he was trying to convert christians, and it failed.

it was sort of like how hitler courted germanic englishmen, before he declared war on them when they didnt agree with his world view.
 
Kadaveri said:
The ‘sister’ in 19:28 isn’t literal, it probably means that Mary was a Levite (which ties in with the Messianic prophecy in Zechariah 12). A similar question to yours was put before Muhammad by the Christians of Najran, and his response it recorded in Sahih Muslim (link).
Click to expand...
it is important to note that, for these people to find something wrong with this phrase, means they were not aware nor ever heard such an expression…yet Muhammad gave the following response:

When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read “O sister of Harun” (i.e. Maryam) in the Qur’an, whereas Moses was born much before Jesus. When I came back to Allah’s Messenger(P) I asked him about that, whereupon he said: The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them.

if we assume they were ignorant about this fact, shouldn’t we look out for proof of what Muhammad said? because his reply gives the impression that the title was common and known and used …can you find such a title used in either OT, NT or tradition?
 
inJESUS said:
… if we assume they were ignorant about this fact, shouldn’t we look out for proof of what Muhammad said? because his reply gives the impression that the title was common and known and used …can you find such a title used in either OT, NT or tradition?
Click to expand...
Read the link that Kadaveri provided.

This particular article does indeed mention 3 verses where such titles have been used in the NT.
 
hamba2han said:
Read the link that Kadaveri provided.

This particular article does indeed mention 3 verses where such titles have been used in the NT.
Click to expand...
In the days of Herod, King of Judea, there was a priest named Zechari’ah, of the division of Abi’jah; and he had a wife of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth. [Luke 1:5, RSV]

Or Jesus(P) was addressed as** Son of David **in the Bible. Was he literally Son of David(P)?

And the crowds that went before him and that followed him shouted, “Hosanna to the Son of David! Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord! Hosanna in the highest!” [Matthew 21:9 RSV]

But when the chief priests and the scribes saw the wonderful things that he did, and the children crying out in the temple, “Hosanna to the Son of David!” they were indignant; [Matthew 21:15 RSV]

Son of/daughter of is surely known as it denotes descendants while adressing different generations…where is "sister of " used between different generations to denote being a descendant?
 
Yes, it seems that it would have made much more sense for Allah to say “daughter of Aaron” instead of “sister of Aaron”.

Allah would have known that this issue would come up. After all, Aaron did, in fact, have a biological sister named Miriam. The resulting confusion for Christians should have been anticipated by Allah.
 
dranzal said:
Yes, it seems that it would have made much more sense for Allah to say “daughter of Aaron” instead of “sister of Aaron”.

indeed for Muhammad’s cover-up response is not backed up.
Allah would have known that this issue would come up. After all, Aaron did, in fact, have a biological sister named Miriam.
Click to expand...
Click to expand...
 
Kadaveri said:
I don’t see any reason to think they would be referring to two different people.
Click to expand...
some Muslim interpreters did see a problem and claimed there were indeed 2 different Aarons, something not supported by Muhammad’s reply.
 
inJESUS said:
… Son of/daughter of is surely known as it denotes descendants while adressing different generations…where is "sister of " used between different generations to denote being a descendant?
Click to expand...
How is it possible that Christians can believe that Jesus (pbuh) is a descendant of David (pbuh)? :confused:

And “sister of” does NOT denote being a descendant of.
 
Why are the two genealogies of Jesus (pbuh) in Matthew and Luke different… and why are both for Joseph?

Since he was born through his mother only, how can Jesus be considered the son of David (pbuh) if nowhere in the Bible is it shown that Mary was of David?
 
hamba2han said:
Why are the two genealogies of Jesus (pbuh) in Matthew and Luke different… and why are both for Joseph?

Since he was born through his mother only, how can Jesus be considered the son of David (pbuh) if nowhere in the Bible is it shown that Mary was of David?
Click to expand...
that is digression. What matters is that "son of " denotes physical or spirirual descendant, unlike “sister of” .
 
hamba2han said:
Why are the two genealogies of Jesus (pbuh) in Matthew and Luke different… and why are both for Joseph?

Since he was born through his mother only, how can Jesus be considered the son of David (pbuh) if nowhere in the Bible is it shown that Mary was of David?
Click to expand...
Have you read this in its entirety?

newadvent.org/cathen/06410a.htm

To the second question…

Romans 1:3:
3 Concerning his Son, who was made to him of the seed of David, according to the flesh.
 
ARGH!!!

Warning!!! Thread HIJACK in progress!!! 😃

Hamba2han, you should be ashamed of yourself.

I hope you know I’m kidding.

The question of Jesus’ ancestry is a very important one…

BUT…so is the question:

Did Allah say (or imply by default) that Maryam (Jesus’ mother) is the same person as Maryam, sister to Aaron?

But, as you can see, I did post a link to CE regarding the geneologies.

BACK TO TOPIC. please 🙂
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top