If only God can forgive sins, why doe Jesus demonstrate to the teachers that the Son of Man has authority to forgive sins.
In Psalm 51, King David says he only sins against God, even though he has committed adultery, and arranges to have the woman’s husband killed, so he can marry her.
Psalm 51
For the director of music. A psalm of David. When the prophet Nathan came to him after David had committed adultery with Bathsheba.
1 Have mercy on me, O God,
according to your unfailing love;
according to your great compassion
blot out my transgressions.
2 Wash away all my iniquity
and cleanse me from my sin.
3 For I know my transgressions,
and my sin is always before me.
4 Against you, you only, have I sinned
Doesn’t the Son of Man, In this contex, refer to mankind in general? If Jesus was wanting to demonstrate that only God can go give sins would He not have referred to him self as the Son of God having the authority to forgive sins?
Just trying to understand this better.������
We may only sin against God, but Jesus gave his disciples authority to forgive sins, even though people may not sin directly against his disciples.
I can go to confession, and ask forgiveness because I have punched someone, and the priest has the authority to forgive me, even though the priest was not my victim. If the priest and God can forgive me, then what about the person I have hurt? I have not been asked by a priest to, to go back to the people I have hurt, repent to them and ask their forgiveness.
If this is the case, then it does appear, we only sin against God.