J
JohnDamian
Guest
That is the fallacy of equivocation.I can assure you, he’s quite right. There is an infinite set of numbers between any two numbers
Infinities in a mathematical sense only exist as potential infinites, and not actual ones.
An actual infinite cannot exist between two end points.
For a mathematical or potential infinite to become an actual one, it must be actualised as a real (and non-conceptual) thing. As this is impossible it would be wrong to state that an *actual *infinite set of numbers exists between any two numbers.