H
hecd2
Guest
From the 1000 men and 1000 women who were their parents. And them from theirs and so on. The evidence is that the effective population leading to modern humans was about 10,000 over the last million years with a limited number of bottlenecks that reduced the population to about 1000 for no more than a 100 generations.I’m traveling and it so happens I have found a granny-friendly computer. What I really don’t understand is Where did the 1,000 men and 1,000 women come from?
Yes - I think the difficulty that you are having might be caused by the fact that you think that humans appear all of sudden in a single generation. But attributes which are clearly uniquely human, such as bipedalism, manual dexterity, control of fire, symbolic and syntactical language, theory of mind, reasoning, social intelligence, morals and ethics, religion, art and so on appear over a long period of time, piecemeal and gradually. You cannot say that this generation of pre-humans was not human, but their children were. The population of pre-humans as a whole evolved towards what we would regard as fully human, appearing from palaeontological evidence to reach that state between 100,000 and 50,000 years ago.And why does the gene studies stop at 1,000 or 10,000 breeding pairs. If these breaders were truly human in that they carry the correct genes, they had to have parents, didn’t they?
The smallest observable bottlenecks in the human lineage are after the divergence from chimps.If the smaller human population were before divergence from chimpanzees, they wouldn’t have been truly human or as you suggest they were animals. What turns these animals into humans? And does not turn the remaining part of the common ancestor into humans?
In other words how does a species retain its identity over many many generations. And the simple answer is interbreeding withon the population.If there were lots of common ancestors doing the split for humans, why are humans the same everywhere?
You have to define the population in question before you can ask questions about common ancestors. But if your question is about the origins of extant apes, I believe that the evidence is that humans, chimps, bonobos and gorillas had a common ancestor in Africa less than 10 million years ago. I don’t know if there is a strong hypothesis supported by evidence for the location of the common ancestor of this group and orangutans (the evidence is that orangutan ancestry is in South East Asia for more than 12 million years.)This brings me to another question. Given the variety and locations of apes, were there different common ancestors for them and where were they?
Nothing. There is no evidence of severely reduced population in human pre-history.And if humans were really human, what would prevent them from overriding the factors which normally cause a reduced population in the first place?
Do you mean for what purposes has human attributes evolved, or how have they done so?Humans have gone beyond any other species. Why?
Alec
evolutionpages.com/homo_pan_divergence.htm