C
chevalier
Guest
Essential truths remain, teaching evolves. But we need to be careful with historical contexts and even old language, e.g. words and phrases do not carry the same mood nowadays if only for the fact that e.g. 19th century phrasing wasn’t old-fashioned in 19th century. From one of these threads, I remember a phrase that went more or less, “the wife should cheerfully accede to her husband’s wishes,” (or was it desires), which was normal English as of 1830, but it carries a totally different mood in 2011.We have both, and other catechisms and teachings. The Truth does not contradict Truth. The 1992 cathechism does not conflict with the Council of Trent Catechism. What was True in the 16th Century is just as true in the 21st. Part of the beauty of the Catholic Faith is that particular thing- our Church was founded by Christ on Peter. We can trace back our beliefs and our Church. When you read the new Cathechism you will find quote after quote from people who lived long ago- Aquinas, Augustine, etc. It’s not a book made up of ideas from the 20th Century. It’s a book full of timeless Truth.
Because the Cathechism of Trent and the new CCC are not in conflict, reading them both can help understand them both. Casting aside the Cathechism of Trent (or any other earlier Church teachings) as only valid for their time and not really True, would call into question the CCC as well.
Pax.
(I believe a more modern writing on the same subject would use modern English and, in line with modern sensitivities, say that spouses shouldn’t unnecessarily turn down each other’s wishes, should be accommodating and willing to compromise… expressing the same or almost the same meaning and landing home without scaring anybody away with the language.)
Further to develop on your argument, Dan, but in the opposite direction, if the modern CCC expresses the same truths as the Trent one, we don’t need to go to Trent because our current CCC is at least equally good for us. In fact, it should be better since it uses familiar language, references and ranges of issues that are more natural to us, as well as taking account of the development of all sorts of knowledge and science (which do help improve human understanding of the faith), and even the continued work of theologians.
What’s more, if our current catechism, in comparison with the Trent one, doesn’t say that a woman “should love to stay home (unless she has a very good reason to go out)”, I am inclined to see it as a development (with John Paul II’s marvellous teaching about women being a major milestone in discovering more about those truths which are for the Church to strive to understand also by continuous work of its theologians) and certainly this kind of detailed precept about a minor matter can’t be put on par with infallible truths that form the central part of the deposit of faith (and is at any rate not infallible).
Also, one thing is what is written there, another is what we understand. The typical common person, even with a university degree, even actually a Catholic with some formation, is not a philologist and historian and theologian in one person. For a person like you or me, it’s hard to claim to be able correctly to dissect the meaning of obsolete syntax such as “should love to stay home etc.” Does it mean she should, each time she would like to go out (e.g. to tend to some business), examine her conscience to find out if the reason is good enough? Or does it mean she should generally be a home-loving person not leaving her duties (and running a house entails a lot of them, and in 16th century often entailed more) unattended? Or perhaps, after all, the as-of-then state of social perception (I don’t use the word “awareness” because I’m no liberal) found way into this expression? What does even “should love to” mean? Is it an elaborate grammatical subjunctive (the familiar “I’d love to!” with “should”) or does it say she should “love” it in terms of actually loving it (feeling or choice, by the way?). I don’t think Joe Catholic can answer this kind of questions, as much as the issue was probably very clear (or a non-issue) to a 16th century educated Catholic. And there’s gonna be a lot of such spots in any given old Church document (one day there was a document saying secular princes should kiss the pope’s foot, and it was indeed a practice for some time… is it unchangeable truth of the Church and if so, why doesn’t Pope Benedict give his foot for kissing?