Why should they? He is quoting the Bible See 1 Thess 2:14-16. But be ware, in that Divinely inspirect quote, God tells us that the Jews - yes, the Jews - killed Christ. That statement of God offends many people today.
I am sorry, but this is a severe oversimplification.
Let us be serious and read the inspired text for what it says, through the light of the authority and tradition of the Catholic Church.
Starting at vs. 14. “For you, brethren, became imitators of the churches of God in Christ Jesus which are in Judea; for you suffered the same things from your countrymen as they did from the Jews, who killed both the lord Jesus and the prophets, and drove us out, and displease God and oppose all men by hindering us from speaking to the Gentiles that hey may be saved…”
Your exegesis, which blames today’s Jews for the killing of Christ, falls apart completely when we read the whole verse. If St. Paul was talking about the Jews of today, would he have followed his statement about the killing of Jesus with “and drove us out?” Do the Jews of today have time machines that they get into so they could then drive Paul out? How are the Jews today able to hinder Paul from speaking to the Gentiles?
Your, and apparently Williams, exegesis on this passage stands entirely on sand.
It is OUR SINS that killed Christ. We did it. He died for us.
Of course, if my explanation were true, it would be backed up by Catholic tradition. And guess what! It IS.
In my Douay Rheims Bible, with commentary by the Rev. George Leo Haydock, hardly a liberal ecumenist, published in the 1800s, Fr. Haydock has this to say:
“The Jews filled (past tense) up the measure of their iniquities by the opposition they every where manifested (past tense) to the religion of Chist. The earliest Fathers of the Church testify that they dispersed people into every nation to blaspheme the name of Christ; and hence sprang the evil fame the Christians bore among the pagans… It seems a foretelling of their entire destruction which happened not long after under Vespasian and Adrian.”
Did you catch that last sentence. The Jews of the time (past tense everywhere in the commentary) opposed the early Church and Christ. And their ENTIRE DESTRUCTION occurred under Vespasian and Adrian.
So, are we to put today’s Jews in a time machine to send them back to Vespasian and Adrian? And if they were ENTIRELY DESTROYED by Vespasian and Adrian, how, pray tell, can they still be here?
Even unmistakably solid traditional commentaries contradict what you are saying here.
The Navarre Bible commentary (given us by Opus Dei and ST Josemaria Escriva) says:
“St. Paul was a Jew and one who loved his people dearly. He is not codemning the Jewish people, but rather the opposition oif SOME Jews to the gospel. Perhaps they thought (past tense) they were doing right in objecting to Jesus Christ being presented as God. However, for an action to be morally good it is not enough for it to be inspired by a good intention; one must also take steps to seek the truth…” etc. etc.
You exegesis on this passage is not fitting with the larger Catholic tradition. It is not fitting with Vatican II either. It also doesn’t fit with the most respected Catholic commentaries.