S
SteveVH
Guest
The fact that the Trinity can be shown from Scripture is prima facie evidence that it was a belief held from the beginning and that it didn’t just occur nearly 400 years later when the sacred texts were canonized, or at some other council. It was believed in the first century as attested to by the writings the authors of the new Testament.But interestingly the councils and fathers referred to scripture,. in their arguments about the Trinity.
Here are some references of ECF’s prior to the canonization of Scripture:
“The oldest extant work in which the word “Trinity” itself (Greek Trias, triados) is used to refer to Father, Son and Holy Spirit is Theophilus of Antioch’s 2nd-century To Autolycus.”
“Study, therefore, to be established in the doctrines of the Lord and the apostles, that so all things, whatsoever ye do, may prosper both in the flesh and spirit; in faith and love; in the Son, and in the Father, and in the Spirit; in the beginning and in the end; with your most admirable bishop, and the well-compacted spiritual crown of your presbytery, and the deacons who are according to God. Be ye subject to the bishop, and to one another, as Jesus Christ to the Father, according to the flesh, and the apostles to Christ, and to the Father, and to the Spirit; that so there may be a union both fleshly and spiritual.” (St. Ignatius, Epistle to the Magnesians, Chapter 13 [SR][3]) (Bolding mine) (Ignatius was martyred around 110 AD)
“We will prove that we worship him reasonably; for we have learned that he is the Son of the true God himself, that he holds a second place, and the Spirit of prophecy a third. For this they accuse us of madness, saying that we attribute to a crucified man a place second to the unchangeable and eternal God, the Creator of all things; but they are ignorant of the mystery which lies therein.” (Justin Martyr,First Apology 13:5–6[6] - 150 A.D.)
Sacred Tradition, which preceded the Bible. I think there is little doubt that the defined dogma developed over centuries, but then so did a number of dogmas that have always been believed by the Church. The lack of specific references to the sinlessness of Mary in the first few centuries could just as well be due to the fact that there were no objections to the belief and therefore the issue did not arise to a high level of commentary.What arguments did they use to support their view of Mary’s sinlessness? There views are only as good as their arguments