Obvious anti-Catholicism in the KJV?

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I’m a cradle Catholic and an avid Bible reader. I love the KJV. I have a beautiful Cambridge edition withe the Apocrypha. Honestly, it’s more Catholic than many of the Catholic approved translations I have read. I prefer it over the DR as I like the more standard\usual names for books, people and the Psalm numbering.
 
=rotlex;12916859]I’m a cradle Catholic and an avid Bible reader. I love the KJV. I have a beautiful Cambridge edition withe the Apocrypha. Honestly, it’s more Catholic than many of the Catholic approved translations I have read. I prefer it over the DR as I like the more standard\usual names for books, people and the Psalm numbering.
BUT

Dear friend in reading it you are NOT learning our Catholic Faith;

For example here drom the Douay Bible is acts 20:28 " [28] Take heed to yourselves, and to the whole flock,** wherein the Holy Ghost hath placed you bishops**, to rule the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

And here is the King James version: same verse "
Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood"

Do not friend be deceived by what YOU like. What Christ actually teaches takes precedent:thumbsup:

God Bless you,
Patrick
.
 
BUT

Dear friend in reading it you are NOT learning our Catholic Faith;

For example here drom the Douay Bible is acts 20:28 " [28] Take heed to yourselves, and to the whole flock,** wherein the Holy Ghost hath placed you bishops**, to rule the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

And here is the King James version: same verse "
Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood"

Do not friend be deceived by what YOU like. What Christ actually teaches takes precedent:thumbsup:

God Bless you,
Patrick
.
As has already been pointed out, both “bishop” and “overseer” are valid translations of the Greek word “episkopos”, which literally means "someone who over (epi) - sees (skopos).
 
BUT

Dear friend in reading it you are NOT learning our Catholic Faith;

For example here drom the Douay Bible is acts 20:28 " [28] Take heed to yourselves, and to the whole flock,** wherein the Holy Ghost hath placed you bishops**, to rule the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

And here is the King James version: same verse "
Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood"

Do not friend be deceived by what YOU like. What Christ actually teaches takes precedent:thumbsup:

God Bless you,
Patrick
.
I do appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut, and concern, however, as someone did point out in that particular phrase, "both “bishop” and “overseer” are valid translations of the Greek word “episkopos”, which literally means “someone who over (epi) - sees (skopos)”.

After having spent many years reading numerous Catholic translations, the DR is still my favorite. (I’ve probably read it cover to cover 3 or 4 times). However, I’m also not so blind as to not see that there is reason for concern on both sides of the coin when it comes to translations. There is an agenda from both sides I’m sure, but I still hold the KJV is one of the finest translations you can read; much more so than the “official” NABRE translation I now must deal with each week at mass.
 
As has already been pointed out, both “bishop” and “overseer” are valid translations of the Greek word “episkopos”, which literally means "someone who over (epi) - sees (skopos).
Yes. And not only that, but the KJV does translate “episkopos” as “bishop” in several places.
 
The KJV is an excellent translation, unparalleled in the beauty of its language, and is also faithful to the original languages. Although its translators were not Catholic, there was no anti-Catholic agenda in its translation–in fact, the KJV restored many “Catholic” things that previous Puritan translators had removed or altered from their translations.

Ironically, it is not only more beautiful but also more accurate and more Catholic than the NAB, which is the most widely-used Catholic translation in the US.
 
King James Version Problems

Bad Translation of KJV

Matthew 16:13
“When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?”
: King James Version.

I don’t like this mis-translation from the KJV. It translates what should be “region” and instead uses “coasts.”
This causes some to confuse “Caesarea Philippi” with the Caesarea that is on the coast of the Mediterranean Sea.

judeministries.org/revisedfinalbook/palestine.gif

The topological significance of “Caesarea Philippi” in regards to the Papacy cannot be overstated.
See

defendingthebride.com/ch/ca/rock1.html

A 1716 edition of the King James Bible has Jesus say ‘sin on more’ in John 5:14, rather than ‘sin no more’.
  1. The “Sin On Bible” 1716: John 8:11 reads “Go and sin on more” rather than “Go and sin no more.”
A 1795 edition had Jesus say in Mark 7:27 ‘Let the children first be killed’ instead of ‘Let the children first be filled’.

One funny example of a printers error is Psalm 119:161 in the 1702 edition of the King James Version,. In that edition, instead of saying “princes have persecuted me without a cause” , David complains that “printers” have persecuted me without a cause."

Probably the worst mistakes, however, were made in the 1631 and 1653 ‘Wicked Bibles’.
In the 1653 edition, 1 Corinthians 6:9 read ‘the unrighteous shall inherit the kingdom of God’ and the

1631 edition had the seventh commandment in Exodus 20:14 as ‘Thou shalt commit adultery.’

theologynetwork.org/Images/Layout/mt4.jpg

3.bp.blogspot.com/-X_mU8dgJTxE/UaYhnoHQYiI/AAAAAAAAAks/5BPf7IF2FTM/s320/www.VirtualHolyBible.com_bible_typos.jpg

More on KJV

web.archive.org/web/20060827050738/http://www.catholicapologetics.net/defects_in_the_kjv.htm

web.archive.org/web/20060116164033/http://www.catholicapologetics.net/0002kjv.htm

.
 
JohnR77;12923386A [COLOR=red said:
1716 edition of the King James Bible

has Jesus say ‘sin on more’ in John 5:14, rather than ‘sin no more’.
  1. The “Sin On Bible” 1716: John 8:11 reads “Go and sin on more” rather than “Go and sin no more.”
A 1795 edition had Jesus say in Mark 7:27 ‘Let the children first be killed’ instead of ‘Let the children first be filled’.

One funny example of a printers error is Psalm 119:161 in the 1702 edition of the King James Version,. In that edition, instead of saying “princes have persecuted me without a cause” , David complains that “printers” have persecuted me without a cause."

Probably the worst mistakes, however, were made in the 1631 and 1653 ‘Wicked Bibles’.
In the 1653 edition, 1 Corinthians 6:9 read ‘the unrighteous shall inherit the kingdom of God’ and the

1631 edition had the seventh commandment in Exodus 20:14 as ‘Thou shalt commit adultery.’

I don’t know, I think this is just really picking at straws here. Are we now going to blame the translation itself for whatever typos or errata printers make?

P.S. ‘Coasts’ isn’t a mistranslation. In Middle and Early Modern English, the word can be used to mean ‘region’, ‘district’ or ‘place’, especially the border or edge of said region* (hey, the word ultimately comes from the Latin word costa ‘rib’, ‘side’), not necessarily ‘edge of the land where it meets a body of water’. (When you wanted to specify that, you said something like ‘seacoast’ or ‘the coast of the sea’.) So it’s not the translator’s fault, but rather the fault of language change.
  • The costes of the land (Middle English) = “the ends of the earth.”
The 1552 Abecedarium Anglico Latinum defines the Latin words regio(nis) and as:

Border, coast, confyne or march of a countrey or place. Confineum. ij, fines, ium, ora. æ orderer. Accola.

Coast or region, ether of the ayre, earth or sea, as of the ayre, east, west, north & south &c. Regio. onis.

Region by region, or by euery region, or coast regionatim
 
‘Coasts’ isn’t a mistranslation. In Middle and Early Modern English, the word can be used to mean ‘region’, ‘district’ or ‘place’, especially the border or edge of said region* (hey, the word ultimately comes from the Latin word costa ‘rib’, ‘side’), not necessarily ‘edge of the land where it meets a body of water’. (When you wanted to specify that, you said something like ‘seacoast’ or ‘the coast of the sea’.) So it’s not the translator’s fault, but rather the fault of language change.
  • The costes of the land (Middle English) = “the ends of the earth.”
The 1552 Abecedarium Anglico Latinum defines the Latin words regio(nis) and as:

Border, coast, confyne or march of a countrey or place. Confineum. ij, fines, ium, ora. æ orderer. Accola.

Coast or region, ether of the ayre, earth or sea, as of the ayre, east, west, north & south &c. Regio. onis.

Region by region, or by euery region, or coast regionatim
Thanks Patrick! That’s very interesting, and it comes as no surprise that words change meaning over 500 years. Some words even acquire the opposite of their original meaning. I am thinking of something in the KJV, but can’t remember it right now. It’ll probably come to mind later 🙂

I am quite sure that the translators didn’t use “coast” rather than “region” because of an obscure geographical reference which, interesting as it may be, is not known to 99.9% of people.
 
Thanks Patrick! That’s very interesting, and it comes as no surprise that words change meaning over 500 years. Some words even acquire the opposite of their original meaning. I am thinking of something in the KJV, but can’t remember it right now. It’ll probably come to mind later 🙂
Good ol’ days of English. ‘Suffer’ meant ‘let’ (“Suffer the little children …”), ‘let’ meant ‘prevent’ (“He who now letteth will let …”), ‘nice’ meant ‘stupid’ then ‘coy’ then ‘fastidious’ or ‘subtle’, ‘doubt’ meant ‘fear’ (so the line “'Tis to be doubted” in King Lear actually means, ‘It’s something to be feared’), ‘sophisticated’ meant ‘unnatural’, ‘p*ss’ was a perfectly normal word for urine, ‘replenish’ meant ‘fill completely’ (rather than ‘refill’), ‘closet’ also referred to ‘private room’ (“But thou, when thou prayest, enter into thy closet…”).

gotquestions.org/KJV-words.html
I am quite sure that the translators didn’t use “coast” rather than “region” because of an obscure geographical reference which, interesting as it may be, is not known to 99.9% of people.
I mean, c’mon, should we expect these 17th-century translators to be familiar with every nook and cranny of Palestine? 😉 I mean, we’ve got the Internet and air travel right now, but we’re talking about the days when you can’t even be sure you’ll make it to the Holy Land and back alive in one piece.

P.S. Caesarea Philippi (Banias) was destroyed in 1291, and was only rediscovered in the mid-19th early-20th century (AFAIK the Roman period layer was only excavated properly during the late 1980s-1990s). The ‘other’ Caesarea (Maritima) was also in ruins around this time.
 
I am surprised that no one has brought up the obvious treatment of the word "paradosis."
 
I am surprised that no one has brought up the obvious treatment of the word "paradosis."
Yes, please do.

I did a quick google on paradosis and found that it is the word often translated as tradition, but that KJV may be anti-Catholic in its translation - using “tradition” when it can be used pejoratively, as in “traditions” criticized by Jesus, but other words when it is used in a more positive sense, in the epistles.

That’s my very quick reading from a google search.

This looks like it’s worth following up on. Most Protestants take it for granted that church “Traditions” are bad - and this may well come from biased translations of paradosis.

Looking forward to more thorough posts on the subject.
 
Yes, please do.

I did a quick google on paradosis and found that it is the word often translated as tradition, but that KJV may be anti-Catholic in its translation - using “tradition” when it can be used pejoratively, as in “traditions” criticized by Jesus, but other words when it is used in a more positive sense, in the epistles.

That’s my very quick reading from a google search.

This looks like it’s worth following up on. Most Protestants take it for granted that church “Traditions” are bad - and this may well come from biased translations of paradosis.

Looking forward to more thorough posts on the subject.
That is a problem with the NIV, not the KJV. The KJV translates paradosis as “tradition” whether it is “bad” tradition or “good” tradition.
 
That is a problem with the NIV, not the KJV. The KJV translates paradosis as “tradition” whether it is “bad” tradition or “good” tradition.
Thankyou!

Once again, KJV stands up to scrutiny.

The most important “good” paradosis is probably…

2 Thess 2:15 [KJV]
Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the **traditions **which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.
bibletools.org has a complete reference for paradosis in the KJV. In only one case is it translated as other than tradition.

bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Lexicon.show/ID/G3862/paradosis.htm

The one case if 1 Cor 11:2, where it uses “ordinances” - as does Douay-Rheims.
Now I praise you, brethren, that in all things you are mindful of me: and keep my ordinances as I have delivered them to you.

Good ol’ days of English. ‘Suffer’ meant ‘let’ (“Suffer the little children …”), ‘let’ meant ‘prevent’ (“He who now letteth will let …”), ‘nice’ meant ‘stupid’ then ‘coy’ then ‘fastidious’ or ‘subtle’, ‘doubt’ meant ‘fear’ (so the line “'Tis to be doubted” in King Lear actually means, ‘It’s something to be feared’), ‘sophisticated’ meant ‘unnatural’, ‘p*ss’ was a perfectly normal word for urine, ‘replenish’ meant ‘fill completely’ (rather than ‘refill’), ‘closet’ also referred to ‘private room’ (“But thou, when thou prayest, enter into thy closet…”).

gotquestions.org/KJV-words.html

I mean, c’mon, should we expect these 17th-century translators to be familiar with every nook and cranny of Palestine? 😉 I mean, we’ve got the Internet and air travel right now, but we’re talking about the days when you can’t even be sure you’ll make it to the Holy Land and back alive in one piece.

P.S. Caesarea Philippi (Banias) was destroyed in 1291, and was only rediscovered in the mid-19th early-20th century (AFAIK the Roman period layer was only excavated properly during the late 1980s-1990s). The ‘other’ Caesarea (Maritima) was also in ruins around this time.
Thanks Patrick! :D:thumbsup:
 
Thankyou!

Once again, KJV stands up to scrutiny.
Yes, it does. In fact, I think it’s very much possible that with the Deuterocanonicals re-inserted, or interspersed in the traditional Vulgate arrangement, the KJV can be approved for Catholic use, probably even without any modification to the text.
 
… I think it’s very much possible that with the Deuterocanonicals re-inserted, or interspersed in the traditional Vulgate arrangement, the KJV can be approved for Catholic use, probably even without any modification to the text.
As some of you may know, there is an edition of the KJV available on the market right now known as the Third Millenium Bible (you can read about it here) that contains the Apocrypha. The version is actually of the same family as the “KJV21”, or “the 21st Century KJV”, though the latter does not contain the Apocrypha.

In the preface to the TAN Publication edition of the Douay-Rheims-Challoner, the publisher states that Challoner’s reason for revising the 1609 D-R was that few Catholics in Great Britain were actually reading the D-R, that many were, in fact, reading the KJV, a situation that was felt had to be remedied. Given that the KJV of that era (1) contained no polemical notes (in fact, NO notes whatsoever), and (2) included the Apocrypha, then what was the big deal if Catholics were reading the KJV?

Could anyone shed some light on this?
 
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