po18guy
Well-known member
I hope that I can make the following clear. My thinking is: As Mary is a type of ark of the covenant, so also may Peter be a sub-type of Jonah, but standing in the shadow of the true sign, Christ. As Mary was a type of Ark, and came after, Jonah was a type of Christ, but preceded Him in time.The primary fulfillment of the sign of Jonah was in the Death and Resurrection of Christ. Matthew 12:40 shows this – Christ became sin (prefigured by Jonah’s rebellion), and is swallowed up into the deep, only to be spit up back onto the earth on the third day.
That said, I think it’s quite possible that Jesus intends both meanings, by calling Peter a son, in essence. I think the verses provided by the earlier poster did a very good job of showing that.
We know that Peter had a mother-in-law. About his parents, we know nothing at all. His father may not have been named “Jonah” at all. If the scripture is pondered so as to entertain a form of Petrine sonship of Christ, this can also lead to the consideration of Peter as a “type” of Christ, no? However, this is only in the manner of an Apostle who acts “in persona Christi”, as the Church maintains in the cases of all ordained Priests and Bishops.
Christ referred to Himself as the “sign of Jonah” but, if Peter was considered a son, then son of Jonah (bar Jonah - referring back to Christ as the sign of Jonah), would also apply, would it not? I don’t want to over-analyze this, but it clarifies the reason for Jesus placing Peter over his contemporaries.