G
guanophore
Guest
I guess I am just having trouble with this jump you are making. If God implants righteousness in a human by the merits of Christ, so that it is no longer that person who lives, but Christ, who lives in Him, how does the Source of that grace become man’s, instead of God’s?Thanks Guan, I was not my intention to rehash any previous material. And no I’m not making it up as I go. But yours and Carlan’s responses prompted me think that if infused righteousness did not cover the sinner (imputation) but actually made them righteous. Was that righteousness then inherent to the believer?
Yes. We are made into the persons He created us to be. We were not created with sin. He cleanses us from all sin. His plan for us is that we may be made Holy, body, mind, and Spirit, so that as whole persons, we can enter heaven (where nothing unclean can dwell) and live with Him forever. We have died, and our lives are hidden with Christ in God.Because when our righteousness is “through the core” to me it implies inherency that we now become righteous.
Well, the righteousness is never ours to begin with in either case.Whereas credited to us (imputed) it is never our righteousness in the first place buy we are relying on Christ to our benefit. So when we are standing before the Father He sees Christ’s righteousness and not ours.
What do you mean “if they are truly righteous?” Do you honestly deny the scriptures that say “nothing unclean will enter heaven”? The people have been MADE righteous by the grace of God. Do you honestly imagine that such a thing is possible apart from grace?if the people in Rev 7:14 are now truly righteous whose righteousness is it that God sees?
You are misunderstanding the meaning of imputation, jer. It means to credit an account. It is not just “doctoring the books”. He actually puts a positive balance into us. He is not just saying there is a credit when it does not, in fact, exist.Code:If imputed righteousness was before Jesus’ death and infusion was after why didn’t Paul differentiate between the two? In fact he never does and continues to perpetuate imputation. He also never even uses a word that means infusion.
God’s grace transforms us by His Spirit dwelling in our hearts through faith.
When He says that we BECOME THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD do you think He just means “we are declared to be righteous”?