Order, Order! Order in the Universe!

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Since there is no evidence that anything else in nature understands itself it seems most unnatural for the mind to do so. This conclusion is supported by the universal legal presumption that only persons usually are responsible for their behaviour.
Correction:

This conclusion is supported by the universal legal presumption that only persons are usually responsible for their behaviour.

(The previous version suggests that sometimes impersonal beings are responsible for their behaviour 🙂
 
Hold on a second. You were saying before that we could differentiate life from non-life by recognizing beneficial behavior. Now it seems you’re saying that we differentiate beneficial behavior from “accidental properties” by checking to see if the object is alive.

It can’t be both, because that would be circular.
That would be circular, but only if the word “accidental property” is defined as “not self-perfective.” But “accidental property” refers to a quality that modifies a pre-existing subject. It doesn’t matter whether a rock is moving or not, it’s a rock either way. If a living thing stops being self-perfective, it is dead. Living things also have accidental properties, but self-perfection is not one of them.
I think the problem here is that objects do not have inherent purposes, we merely assign purposes and judge what is beneficial, essential, etc., relative to that purpose.
What you are discussing here is a type of teleology to be sure, but I think we need to draw a distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic teleology. Using a rock as a paperweight is entirely observer-relative, since it depends not on the rock’s nature but on the intentions of an external subject. A rock is probably a poor example for intrinsic teleology since it doesn’t really have too many actualities, but you might say it is inherently directed at holding things down, since its very nature as a rock gives it this ability. Life is a better example. Life by its very nature is directed towards growth, reproduction, metabolism, etc. since it does these things naturally. If all human observers go out of existence, there will be no such thing as “paperweight-ness” anymore since that depended wholly on our intentions, but rocks would still by their very nature hold lighter things down and life would continue to grow and reproduce by its very nature. That’s all that is meant by intrinsic teleology and directedness.
That’s an interesting perspective, and strictly speaking I don’t disagree with most of the above. It’s just that in order to jump from this conception of God to Christianity, you need to treat God as a sort of “superman” in some sense. I mean, I could postulate that the universe is the only necessary being, and timelessness, omnipotency, immutability, etc., would follow from this. But the universe doesn’t have opinions. It doesn’t care what humans do or try to judge our behavior. It doesn’t know anything. So in order to get to the god of which you speak, you need more than a necessary being, you need a mind; something that can discriminate, have opinions, etc. And this is the same reaction I give to Aquinas’ proofs of God. It doesn’t seem to be the same god Christians actually invoke in practice.
Sure, that’s just a thin slice of what it means to be God. You could accept it and be a-religious, and even not think that God is personal in anyway. The aspects typically associated with God would have to be argued for further, and clarifications would have to be given that don’t ascribe common qualities like “powerful”, “intelligent”, “good”, etc. in the same way they are applied to finite things, but are only applied in an analogous sense. Anyway, that’s a whole other discussion, but I think if you recognize that this kind of thing is more what we have in mind than the deistic architect god then I think that is a win. I think you are right that many secular thinkers use the universe as a fill-in for this classical conception of God, but then you’d have difficulties since it does seem to be logically possible for the universe not to exist, or to have been different than it is, due to the fact that it changes constantly (so it’s constantly losing old being and gaining new being, so it does not seem to be unrestricted being).
So what do you mean by “material”?
I would take material to mean “anything that is essentially extended in space.” I was using the word “physical” to mean the objects/realities typically studied by modern physics, to be contrasted with chemical, biological, psychological, etc.
I want to make sure I’m understanding what you’re saying first. Are you saying that, since I started with a biological problem, even translating the problem into physical terms doesn’t count as reduction? I will grant you that perhaps we wouldn’t appreciate the significance of our results if we just explained everything with physics jargon, but translation into physical terms is what I mean by “reducing to physics”. Maybe you take reduction to mean something stronger.
Yes, I think we are not talking about the same thing. I don’t doubt you could come up with a description of a cell with only physical terminology, but it would still be presupposing the reality of the biological features. This seems to be so because you’d have the cell as an archetype and then you’d be describing all of the physical interactions within that context. It’s hard to see how you have completely reduced biology if you cannot get away from that archetype. You’d have to start from the “ground-up” so-to-speak, but then there would be no reason for you to ever end up with a biological system, or to even recognize one or have it stick around, because things like electrons by their very nature need not constitute biological systems.
 
I guess I would need you to explain how you would make use of empirical data without experimentation before I can comment further on this. To be more specific, without assuming the scientific method, how do you decide 1) what is or is not empirical, 2) what is an acceptable method of collecting data, 3) how should the data be used to support or discredit a metaphysical claim?
As far as I know, empirical refers to knowledge gained through the senses, to be contrasted with rational which refers to knowledge derived from logical or self-evident principles. You did a pretty good job of using empirical knowledge to at least get you thinking about a metaphysic below.
Probably the easiest way to explain my position on this is by asking what an unpredictable universe would look like. Would it be a universe in which people could hear colors and see sounds? Would it be a universe in which particles just teleport to different locations randomly? Would it be a universe composed entirely of gelatin?

I claim that each of those universes is in some sense predictable, because I did just that: I described how objects in the universe behaved, which naturally leads to predictions. Even a universe in which everything moves randomly would follow the laws of Brownian motion, for example. For a universe to be unpredictable, you would have to be unable to describe it, because any description will offer some predictive power.
Thank you, this is the point I was trying to get across to the other posters. So you used your empirical knowledge to recognize the fact that reality is regularly-occurring and predictable. You also saw that our recognizing patterns is the only way we have real knowledge of the universe. Next question: is there a reason for this or not? Yes → then it seems that these regularities are objective and intelligible. Next question: is this intelligibility separate from the world or intrinsic to it? If you say separate, then you have “laws of nature” or Platonic forms, but then why do these laws have an essential connection to the world if they are separate from it? If you say intrinsic, then you have what is usually referred to as forms or natures (at least of the Aristotelian type). But then how does this relate to the fact that things change, which is another empirical datum? Are they constantly changing natures or is something non-essential changing? Then you get into act-potency for instance, and then 2,000 years of philosophical development.

What if you said no to the first question, that regularities have no reason for their existence? But then you could no longer claim that we have real knowledge of reality, since that depended on us being able to recognize real patterns, and now we’re questioning that there is a reason for the patterns, so how do we know there are actually any patterns at all if they are coming from our minds alone? Then you seem to end up where Kant ended up.

What if I am say, Parmenides, and I go off the rails by claiming that “change cannot occur because it involves being coming from non-being?” Well our ordinary experience suggests that change is indeed real, so either our metaphysic is mistaken, or our senses lie to us when they present us with change. But coming to the Parmenidean conclusion involved change from a state ignorant of this truth to one cognizant of it, so that cannot be right. So since it is true that “being does not come from non-being” and it is also true that change actually happens, change must involve new being coming from something else. Enter act-potency, etc, etc.

Anyway, I’m not saying you do or should agree with any one of the above, and you could spill tons of ink mulling over stuff like this and going down all these paths, but this is what I mean by metaphysics being informed by empirical considerations.
 
That is not really an argument. Assuming that state of creation must be in chaos in absence of a creator. In fact one can assume that the state of universe is the state of order primary and this leads to more complexity which is the result consciousness acting on underling states.
You are the one that is assuming that there is some kind of obvious connection between the universe being ordered and it necessarily requiring an intelligent cause to make it thus. Although I think that order does ultimately need recourse to an omniscient cause, I don’t think that is immediately obvious since one could always say that the order is simply due to the nature of real things themselves and no further explanation is needed, as Aristotle said. It is however immediately obvious that the universe is ordered in the sense we’ve been talking about, so I don’t know why people have this tendency to deny it.
 
Doomsday is also predicted by science!
Not only is it predicted by science, but thanks to the Manhattan Project it may well have been immensely hastened by science.
Not only that.The adulation of science at the expense of religion has already led to countless atrocities. Fanaticism is not confined to those who claim to believe in God…
 
Not only that.The adulation of science at the expense of religion has already led to countless atrocities. Fanaticism is not confined to those who claim to believe in God…
I agree whole-heartedly with the last sentence. Fanatics wear many different stripes.
 
What you are discussing here is a type of teleology to be sure, but I think we need to draw a distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic teleology.
Well, to have a teleology, you need an end of some sort. I’d say my position depends on what you take to be an end. If an end is just something that will happen, such as the universe tending ultimately toward heat death, then sure, teleology is intrinsic. If an end is a goal, i.e., a prescribed mission of some sort, then teleology is extrinsic. Is this roughly how you would distinguish the two?
If all human observers go out of existence, there will be no such thing as “paperweight-ness” anymore since that depended wholly on our intentions, but rocks would still by their very nature hold lighter things down and life would continue to grow and reproduce by its very nature.
While no one would be around to label it a paperweight or use it as such, its quality as a paperweight is still something objective. So in that sense, paperweight-ness is an essence.
I think you are right that many secular thinkers use the universe as a fill-in for this classical conception of God, but then you’d have difficulties since it does seem to be logically possible for the universe not to exist, or to have been different than it is, due to the fact that it changes constantly (so it’s constantly losing old being and gaining new being, so it does not seem to be unrestricted being).
I would actually dispute that it’s logically possible for the universe to not exist, depending on precisely what you mean by that. It seems logically possible for the laws of physics to be different, so in that sense a particular universe with a particular set of laws is a contingency.

But let’s say we use your definition of “material” and define the universe to be the set of all materials. Even if the set is empty, the set seems to be a well-defined object no matter which contingencies hold and which do not, therefore the universe must exist in this sense. Then again, you may disagree with a set-theoretic definition of “universe”.
You’d have to start from the “ground-up” so-to-speak, but then there would be no reason for you to ever end up with a biological system, or to even recognize one or have it stick around, because things like electrons by their very nature need not constitute biological systems.
Alright, I can agree that it would not be desirable to reduce biology to physics in the sense of reduction you’re using. I only meant biology can be translated to physical terms. So for future reference I may call it “translation” rather than “reduction”, although I prefer reduction because it is clear from this term that the relationship is not symmetrical, e.g., physics cannot be translated/reduced to biology.
Next question: is there a reason for this or not?
In my first post in this thread I used the analogy of a set and its properties as a substitute for the universe and its laws, so if I may, I will reframe your question using that it analogy.

Suppose the “universe” is the set S containing only 2, 4, and 6. It is a “law” of this universe that all of its “objects” are even. Now you are asking whether there is a reason for this law. In a manner of speaking, there is, but I think the reason is boring. We can derive this law by dividing each number by 2 and checking to see if the result is an integer, and the fact that we can derive the law in this fashion is the “reason” for the law. The reason for the law is that the law is true.

Now I’m sure you could say that perhaps it is in the nature of all objects in S to be even, and I guess I would be forced to agree, but I don’t see how phrasing it this way helps us. I see no substantive difference between saying that “all objects in S are even” and “it is the nature of all objects in S to be even”. The universal quantifier “all” tells us that, in this universe, being even is not an accidental property–objects must be even–so it seems to do all the work that the word “nature” does.
 
Well, to have a teleology, you need an end of some sort. I’d say my position depends on what you take to be an end. If an end is just something that will happen, such as the universe tending ultimately toward heat death, then sure, teleology is intrinsic. If an end is a goal, i.e., a prescribed mission of some sort, then teleology is extrinsic. Is this roughly how you would distinguish the two?
Teleology is always extrinsic because it requires the premeditated ordering of a being toward its end. Nature cannot premeditate. Natural selection is a misnomer, since the universe does not order itself to heat death, but is ordered to heat death. Natural selection is a misnomer because there is no mind in nature that orders nature to certain ends. Teleology requires a mind to give purpose to anything, as when a human mind invents a hammer for hammering.
 
Teleology is always extrinsic because it requires the premeditated ordering of a being toward its end. Nature cannot premeditate. Natural selection is a misnomer, since the universe does not order itself to heat death, but is ordered to heat death. Natural selection is a misnomer because there is no mind in nature that orders nature to certain ends. Teleology requires a mind to give purpose to anything, as when a human mind invents a hammer for hammering.
Nothing requires anything supernatural. You are absolutely permitted to believe such…it just isn’t a fact…not truth.

John
 
Nothing requires anything supernatural. You are absolutely permitted to believe such…it just isn’t a fact…not truth.
John
How do you distinguish what is natural from what is supernatural? Is God natural? 😉
 
Well, to have a teleology, you need an end of some sort. I’d say my position depends on what you take to be an end. If an end is just something that will happen, such as the universe tending ultimately toward heat death, then sure, teleology is intrinsic. If an end is a goal, i.e., a prescribed mission of some sort, then teleology is extrinsic. Is this roughly how you would distinguish the two?
I think that gets it mostly right, although I prefer to qualify it a bit more. Intrinsic teleology is something that a natural being tends towards given its nature, for instance the fact that a living organism tends towards growth and reproduction. So it is goal-directed even in the case of intrinsic teleology, although it certainly is not always a conscious goal (plants for instance do not consciously seek to grow). It even holds for inorganic things, for instance ice naturally tends towards cooling the surrounding air/liquid.

Extrinsic teleology is something that is a function that is only relative to the intentions of an external user. For instance, the time-telling capacities of a watch are entirely observer-relative. Metallic parts do not suddenly by their very nature become “time-telling” simply because they are arranged in a complex pattern. They are only time telling because humans interpret them as such.
While no one would be around to label it a paperweight or use it as such, its quality as a paperweight is still something objective. So in that sense, paperweight-ness is an essence.
Sure, but its quality for being used for the external purpose of holding down paper exists in as much as the object is naturally heavy, not in as much as it is a paperweight which is observer-relative.
I would actually dispute that it’s logically possible for the universe to not exist, depending on precisely what you mean by that. It seems logically possible for the laws of physics to be different, so in that sense a particular universe with a particular set of laws is a contingency.

But let’s say we use your definition of “material” and define the universe to be the set of all materials. Even if the set is empty, the set seems to be a well-defined object no matter which contingencies hold and which do not, therefore the universe must exist in this sense. Then again, you may disagree with a set-theoretic definition of “universe”.
I think you are right to recognize the contingency of the laws of nature and the definition of the universe as the set of every existing thing seems to be a reasonable one, but I don’t think that means that the universe would therefore be logically necessary. This seems to be the case since the fact that there is a set relating existing things seems to depend on things actually existing, so the existents are more fundamental than the set is, and the existents are not logically necessary as was admitted when we said that the laws of nature could have been otherwise.

If what you have in mind is that the set is not really a universe but a representation of the possibly infinite combination of possible laws of nature that could obtain, then the set seems to be a consequence or aspect of the reality of unrestricted being really being able to be restricted in finite ways. But unrestricted being is classically argued to correspond to God, so it seems that what we identify as logically necessary is really the same reality, but we then disagree on what this entails.
In my first post in this thread I used the analogy of a set and its properties as a substitute for the universe and its laws, so if I may, I will reframe your question using that it analogy.

Suppose the “universe” is the set S containing only 2, 4, and 6. It is a “law” of this universe that all of its “objects” are even. Now you are asking whether there is a reason for this law. In a manner of speaking, there is, but I think the reason is boring. We can derive this law by dividing each number by 2 and checking to see if the result is an integer, and the fact that we can derive the law in this fashion is the “reason” for the law. The reason for the law is that the law is true.

Now I’m sure you could say that perhaps it is in the nature of all objects in S to be even, and I guess I would be forced to agree, but I don’t see how phrasing it this way helps us. I see no substantive difference between saying that “all objects in S are even” and “it is the nature of all objects in S to be even”. The universal quantifier “all” tells us that, in this universe, being even is not an accidental property–objects must be even–so it seems to do all the work that the word “nature” does.
Okay, I understand that but what you are describing is a law on the set that relates everything in the universe, which would seem to be accidental as you indicated. To use your example, it’s not really the case that the evenness of 2, 4, and 6 is dependent on any property of the set. If you added 7 to the universe, they would still be even for the same reason as before even though the proposition that “everything in the universe is even” no longer holds. I was getting at something more fundamental, namely why the items in the set exist at all. If the previous analysis is correct, then they need not exist, so either their existence is an inexplicable brute fact or the ultimate reason finds itself in unrestricted being, which does exist through its nature.
 
Not to speak for oldcelt, but I consider “natural” to be nearly useless terminology. To say that something is natural amounts to saying it can be explained and tested.

And that’s my beef with fantasy authors. Consider the Harry Potter universe for example. They can perform “magic”, yet they have academics who study the subject and explain its aspects to students. They wave their wands and see what happens, performing experiments. So would magic not just become the new physics? Is it not completely analogous to teaching students mechanics or electromagnetism? “Magic” would just refer to a newly discovered set of physical laws that could be empirically tested, just like “normal” physics.

I think people have this misconception that science makes a priori assumptions about what is or isn’t natural. No, rather science tells you that you should study a subject in a certain fashion, and anything that can be studied in that fashion is eventually called “natural”.
 
Not to speak for oldcelt, but I consider “natural” to be nearly useless terminology. To say that something is natural amounts to saying it can be explained and tested.

And that’s my beef with fantasy authors. Consider the Harry Potter universe for example. They can perform “magic”, yet they have academics who study the subject and explain its aspects to students. They wave their wands and see what happens, performing experiments. So would magic not just become the new physics? Is it not completely analogous to teaching students mechanics or electromagnetism? “Magic” would just refer to a newly discovered set of physical laws that could be empirically tested, just like “normal” physics.

I think people have this misconception that science makes a priori assumptions about what is or isn’t natural. No, rather science tells you that you should study a subject in a certain fashion, and anything that can be studied in that fashion is eventually called “natural”.
It follows that naturalism is untenable and objections to supernatural reality have no rational foundation.
 
Sure, but its quality for being used for the external purpose of holding down paper exists in as much as the object is naturally heavy, not in as much as it is a paperweight which is observer-relative.
I think “heavy” is observer-relative too, because it is theory-laden, and theories are observer-relative. You say it’s heavy because you believe gravity is acting on it. But perhaps there is no gravity and objects don’t fall to the ground, Earth falls to the objects. Or perhaps the space between objects shrinks so they will collide. The everyday terms we use to describe objects are “natural” in the context of some theoretical framework. But all of our theory, such as gravitational theory, is still contingent on observation, observers, and those observers assigning roles to objects within the model of the theory.
This seems to be the case since the fact that there is a set relating existing things seems to depend on things actually existing, so the existents are more fundamental than the set is, and the existents are not logically necessary as was admitted when we said that the laws of nature could have been otherwise.
I don’t think my definition of “universe” depends on anything existing. The universe could very well be the empty set. Of course, the next question one might ask is “Why is the universe not empty?” which my definition alone doesn’t address. But by the definition I’m using, the universe will still exist regardless of any contingencies. The only contingencies are whatever is inside of it.
Okay, I understand that but what you are describing is a law on the set that relates everything in the universe, which would seem to be accidental as you indicated. To use your example, it’s not really the case that the evenness of 2, 4, and 6 is dependent on any property of the set. If you added 7 to the universe, they would still be even for the same reason as before even though the proposition that “everything in the universe is even” no longer holds. I was getting at something more fundamental, namely why the items in the set exist at all. If the previous analysis is correct, then they need not exist, so either their existence is an inexplicable brute fact or the ultimate reason finds itself in unrestricted being, which does exist through its nature.
To someone within the universe I described, it may seem remarkable that everything is even. It’s a striking coincidence, right? Now suppose we add 7 as you suggested. Ah, but now there are just as many composite numbers as primes in the universe! Out of all the numbers that could be in the set, what are the odds that would happen? It can’t be coincidence!

So I’m being a little facetious here, but I think that no matter what exists in the universe there will be laws (facts that hold for all members of the set), and humans will be fascinated by the existence of the laws. Add however many numbers you like to the original set, but there will still be laws and, upon discovery, the inhabitants of that universe will insist that there must somehow be more to the story. But we know the truth. The truth is that we’re just adding numbers more or less randomly, yet laws will still persist no matter how much we try to thwart patterns.

So as incredible as laws may seem to us, I think the existence of laws is inevitable. Not because the objects are special, but because the capacity for patterns is endless.
 
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