What you are discussing here is a type of teleology to be sure, but I think we need to draw a distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic teleology.
Well, to have a teleology, you need an end of some sort. I’d say my position depends on what you take to be an end. If an end is just something that will happen, such as the universe tending ultimately toward heat death, then sure, teleology is intrinsic. If an end is a goal, i.e., a prescribed mission of some sort, then teleology is extrinsic. Is this roughly how you would distinguish the two?
If all human observers go out of existence, there will be no such thing as “paperweight-ness” anymore since that depended wholly on our intentions, but rocks would still by their very nature hold lighter things down and life would continue to grow and reproduce by its very nature.
While no one would be around to label it a paperweight or use it as such, its quality as a paperweight is still something objective. So in that sense, paperweight-ness is an essence.
I think you are right that many secular thinkers use the universe as a fill-in for this classical conception of God, but then you’d have difficulties since it does seem to be logically possible for the universe not to exist, or to have been different than it is, due to the fact that it changes constantly (so it’s constantly losing old being and gaining new being, so it does not seem to be unrestricted being).
I would actually dispute that it’s logically possible for the universe to not exist, depending on precisely what you mean by that. It seems logically possible for the laws of physics to be different, so in that sense a particular universe with a particular set of laws is a contingency.
But let’s say we use your definition of “material” and define the universe to be the set of all materials. Even if the set is empty, the set seems to be a well-defined object no matter which contingencies hold and which do not, therefore the universe must exist in this sense. Then again, you may disagree with a set-theoretic definition of “universe”.
You’d have to start from the “ground-up” so-to-speak, but then there would be no reason for you to ever end up with a biological system, or to even recognize one or have it stick around, because things like electrons by their very nature need not constitute biological systems.
Alright, I can agree that it would not be desirable to reduce biology to physics in the sense of reduction you’re using. I only meant biology can be translated to physical terms. So for future reference I may call it “translation” rather than “reduction”, although I prefer reduction because it is clear from this term that the relationship is not symmetrical, e.g., physics cannot be translated/reduced to biology.
Next question: is there a reason for this or not?
In my first post in this thread I used the analogy of a set and its properties as a substitute for the universe and its laws, so if I may, I will reframe your question using that it analogy.
Suppose the “universe” is the set S containing only 2, 4, and 6. It is a “law” of this universe that all of its “objects” are even. Now you are asking whether there is a reason for this law. In a manner of speaking, there is, but I think the reason is boring. We can derive this law by dividing each number by 2 and checking to see if the result is an integer, and the fact that we can derive the law in this fashion is the “reason” for the law. The reason for the law is that the law is true.
Now I’m sure you could say that perhaps it is in the nature of all objects in S to be even, and I guess I would be forced to agree, but I don’t see how phrasing it this way helps us. I see no substantive difference between saying that “all objects in S are even” and “it is the nature of all objects in S to be even”. The universal quantifier “all” tells us that, in this universe, being even is not an accidental property–objects must be even–so it seems to do all the work that the word “nature” does.