Original Sin and Concupiscence

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Wow. I’ve taught the story of A & E for years and this is the best put together, complete thought of it that I have ever read!

I’ve never heard anyone mention re the tree of life before = Jesus’ cross
Sin, death and sacrifice = tree of the knowledge of good and evil

The only thing I could think of to add is that Adam was indeed more responsible than Eve and should have resisted eating it. After all, God spoke to him and not to Eve. She could have fallen for satan’s lies but Adam could have been more resistant since he knew God personally.

And isn’t that how we should be today?

God bless you
What do you teach about the Catholic doctrine that Adam committed the Original Sin?

What do you teach about the Catholic doctrines involving Original Sin?

What do you teach about the required Divinity of Jesus Christ because of Adam and Original Sin?

What do you teach about the Catholic doctrines regarding the **nature **of Adam?

What are your favorite teaching verses from the first three chapters of Genesis?

Please advise. Thank you.
 
Adam’s rejection isn’t based on any kind of wisdom. It’s the very rejection of Wisdom. It’s the turning away from the waters of life. In short, Adam rejected Wisdom, although he had it initially.
When you are speaking about “wisdom”, it does sound like Genesis 1: 27. Is that correct? Or are you speaking about the biology wisdom in Genesis 2: 20? Or is it the wisdom that humankind descended from two sole founders, Genesis 2:18? Or is it God’s wisdom in Genesis 3:15?
 
When you are speaking about “wisdom”, it does sound like Genesis 1: 27. Is that correct? Or are you speaking about the biology wisdom in Genesis 2: 20? Or is it the wisdom that humankind descended from two sole founders, Genesis 2:18? Or is it God’s wisdom in Genesis 3:15?
I am speaking of Wisdom as Solomon spoke of it. Solomon spoke of it as synonymous with the Holy Spirit.
 
I am speaking of Wisdom as Solomon spoke of it. Solomon spoke of it as synonymous with the Holy Spirit.
Thank you.

It can be said that the Catholic Church is guided by the wisdom of the Holy Spirit because of chapter 14, Gospel of John, and Acts 2: 1-4. While I have minimal knowledge of Solomon, I can easily understand why his wisdom would be synonymous with the Holy Spirit. However, Adam, though he has status as the first human, he does not have the status of Solomon. And Solomon does not have the status of Adam. Certainly, the author of the first three chapters of Genesis has the wisdom of the Holy Spirit as does the Catholic Church when major ecumenical councils are convened. But these examples are centuries after Adam.

What I am driving at is that we need to examine Adam where his boots hit the ground.
Speculations are great, but what I am interested in is the reality of Genesis 1: 27, which should be seen as a definitive explanation of basic human nature — which is Adam’s.

To me, connecting Original Sin and concupiscence
has to start with the first three chapters of Genesis, followed by the development of basic doctrines. *CCC *66; *CCC *70. Personally, I like to start with Adam, not with speculations and unanswerable questions, but as he is as the original human being.The first three chapters of Genesis. CCC 355-358; CCC 374-379; *CCC *1730-1732; CCC 404-405.

Please note.
Because these paragraphs include small print, it is important to first read CCC 20-21.
 
A good article you can find on it is in the following book as a chapter. I recommend requesting the book or chapter at the library, because it is ridiculously expensive to buy:

Kavvadas, Nestor. “An Eastern View: Theodore of Mopsuestia’s Against the Defenders of Original Sin.” In Grace for Grace: The Debates after Augustine and Pelagius. Edited by Alexander Y. Hwang et al. Washington D. C.: Catholic University of America Press, 2014. 271-294.
Thanks. Will do.
I believe that it is just an idea. The Devil is merely the first of creation to rebel against God’s will.
Okay. Following your thought process this has to be accepted by you. If you’re trying to get to the bottomof “evil”, I mean. Otherwise, in the simpler concept, satan and evil are one and the same thing.
Well, Satan is the originator because he was the first sinner. But he is not Evil itself.
Question becomes moot if you separate the two, which you must necessarily do for your thought experiment.
Sorry, but I really don’t see the difference. Perhaps you could explain why it is problematic for you more, so that I might further understand what the you are trying to say. Right now, the problem doesn’t seem clear to me.
I believe I explained it in my previous post. Maybe not very well, I’m always in a hurry. Uffa. You must know the distiction between Original Sin and Sin. Concup. comes as a RESULT of original sin. It didn’t exist before that. So now we have original sin. Man fell from his “perfect” state and is now infected with the Sin Nature or Concupiscense. Concup. comes AFTER the fall. So it’s important to me to distinquish SIN from the SIN NATURE. Not only is it important to me, it’s absolutely necessary when explaining sin to kids or even to adults.

Knowing how important details are to you (as evidenced from your posts!), I’d have to say
that you understand the difference but it is not important to you. However, for those to whom it is important, it should be referred to proplerly but I see that it doesn’t bother anyone else so I tend not to make a point of side matters when discussing a major theme. Unless it’s important to catholicism in general and for everyone.

God bless

Wow! Learned the quote thing. It took lots of time though. They say here that God sends time. Wish I had more!!
 

Well, Satan is the originator because he was the first sinner. But he is not Evil itself…
evil, noun (Collins)

  1. *]anything morally bad or wrong; wickedness; depravity; sin
    *]anything that causes harm, pain, misery, disaster, etc.

    John 8:44 You are of your father the devil, and the desires of your father you will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and he stood not in the truth; because truth is not in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father thereof.
 
Thanks. Will do.

Okay. Following your thought process this has to be accepted by you. If you’re trying to get to the bottomof “evil”, I mean. Otherwise, in the simpler concept, satan and evil are one and the same thing.

Question becomes moot if you separate the two, which you must necessarily do for your thought experiment.

I believe I explained it in my previous post. Maybe not very well, I’m always in a hurry. Uffa. You must know the distiction between Original Sin and Sin. Concup. comes as a RESULT of original sin. It didn’t exist before that. So now we have original sin. Man fell from his “perfect” state and is now infected with the Sin Nature or Concupiscense. Concup. comes AFTER the fall. So it’s important to me to distinquish SIN from the SIN NATURE. Not only is it important to me, it’s absolutely necessary when explaining sin to kids or even to adults.

Knowing how important details are to you (as evidenced from your posts!), I’d have to say
that you understand the difference but it is not important to you. However, for those to whom it is important, it should be referred to proplerly but I see that it doesn’t bother anyone else so I tend not to make a point of side matters when discussing a major theme. Unless it’s important to catholicism in general and for everyone.

God bless

Wow! Learned the quote thing. It took lots of time though. They say here that God sends time. Wish I had more!!
First, there is no sin nature per se.

My suggestion is to drop that designation and follow the Catholic teaching in *CCC *405 where there is a clear distinction between “sin nature” which is a totally corrupted nature and the reality of a wounded human nature.

Another problem floating around is the idea that "Man fell from his “perfect” state and whatever.
" Man’s “perfect” state is in the presence of the Beatific Vision. CCC Glossary, Beatific Vision, page 867

Personally, I think that problems occur is because the original relationship between humanity and Divinity is not examined according to Catholic doctrines such as Original Sin and the purpose of Genesis 1: 26-27 and Genesis 2: 15-17. Genesis 3: 9-11, is where serious sin, a break in the relationship between an individual and God, is mentioned.
 
Adam’s rejection isn’t based on any kind of wisdom. It’s the very rejection of Wisdom. It’s the turning away from the waters of life. In short, Adam rejected Wisdom, although he had it initially.
But then did he reject wisdom because he was unwise enough to accept it-or was it due to some other reason, imperfection, limitation? And in any case, if due to a limitation-something he had no control over-wouldn’t his culpability be reduced compared to his having no limitations?

I’m struggling with the idea of his having “perfect wisdom”. I don’t know how close his relationship with God was. Theologians don’t consider it to be on par with the Beatific Vision, which by its nature should’ve excluded any desire* other *than God first, above all else, from Adam’s wish list.

If Adam was still malleable, teachable-if Adam could learn- even if only to learn that everything that he was already given and everything that he knew to begin with was everything that he could ever *want *to have and everything that he ever *needed *to know, then there was something missing with him to begin with. I’m not sure how to identify this “something”, but wisdom may well fit the bill. In Eden, he couldn’t yet fully or perfectly know the full goodness and glory of God, but was still held accountable for not trusting in and heeding God. Even Adam was apparently expected to walk by faith and not by full sight to one degree or another-as if justice still demanded that he did. This is what the choice presented to him in Eden involved. Would he decide, would he will, rightly or wrongly, given all he knew? And, if not, why not?
 
But then did he reject wisdom because he was unwise enough to accept it-or was it due to some other reason, imperfection, limitation? And in any case, if due to a limitation-something he had no control over-wouldn’t his culpability be reduced compared to his having no limitations?

I’m struggling with the idea of his having “perfect wisdom”. I don’t know how close his relationship with God was. Theologians don’t consider it to be on par with the Beatific Vision, which by its nature should’ve excluded any desire* other *than God first, above all else, from Adam’s wish list.

If Adam was still malleable, teachable-if Adam could learn- even if only to learn that everything that he was already given and everything that he knew to begin with was everything that he could ever *want *to have and everything that he ever *needed *to know, then there was something missing with him to begin with. I’m not sure how to identify this “something”, but wisdom may well fit the bill. In Eden, he couldn’t yet fully or perfectly know the full goodness and glory of God, but was still held accountable for not trusting in and heeding God. Even Adam was apparently expected to walk by faith and not by full sight to one degree or another-as if justice still demanded that he did. This is what the choice presented to him in Eden involved. Would he decide, would he will, rightly or wrongly, given all he knew? And, if not, why not?
Well, I think we should really revamp our notion of perfection. I think you are implicitly operating on the Aristotelian/Thomist notion of perfection, where something must reach an endpoint of non-progession so-to-speak in order to qualify as perfect. I really don’t find the frame work constructive for a variety of reasons that I won’t go into here. But I will highlight one problem within the framework that is specific to this case. God is infinite. So experiencing God is naturally infinite. So by perfection, I think we should really just mean that we are in an honest relationship with God and have been baptized by both water and spirit.

Adam could still learn, but learning does not necessarily have anything to do with knowing God via Wisdom/Holy Spirit. Are we to honestly expect that Adam somehow knew Calculus, the Theory of Relativity, etc. before the Fall? I certainly do not. When I speak of Wisdom, knowledge, etc. in the context of the pre-Fall Adam and Eve, I am only speaking of it as having a true and perfect relationship with God. This involves partaking of the Holy Spirit, the uncreated energies of God, knowing God, etc. This does not pertain to knowing the Essence/Nature of God, however, because we can never know the essence of God. This distinction between natures/essence and uncreated energies of God is how we avoid any forms of pantheism or violation of our free will. If truly knowing God means that we cannot later choose to ignore God, then our free will has been violated. Or our nature has been subsumed into the nature of God, and thus we as individuals no longer exist. These two positions are untenable to me.
 

he couldn’t yet fully or perfectly know the full goodness and glory of God, but was still held accountable for not trusting in and heeding God
The Catholic teaching on culpability is that there must be knowledge of the sinful character of the act. Adam knew this, as we are told in Genesis 2:15 And the Lord God took man, and put him into the paradise for pleasure, to dress it, and keep it. 16 And he commanded him, saying: Of every tree of paradise thou shalt eat: 17 But of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat. for in what day soever thou shalt eat of it, thou shalt die the death.

St. Thomas Aquinas wrote something interesting on the first sin, in his Summa Theologica, II, II, Q163, A1.

Article 1. Whether pride was the first man’s first sin?I answer that, Many movements may concur towards one sin, and the character of sin attaches to that one in which inordinateness is first found. And it is evident that inordinateness is in the inward movement of the soul before being in the outward act of the body; since, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei i, 18), the sanctity of the body is not forfeited so long as the sanctity of the soul remains. Also, among the inward movements, the appetite is moved towards the end before being moved towards that which is desired for the sake of the end; and consequently man’s first sin was where it was possible for his appetite to be directed to an inordinate end. Now man was so appointed in the state of innocence, that there was no rebellion of the flesh against the spirit. Wherefore it was not possible for the first inordinateness in the human appetite to result from his coveting a sensible good, to which the concupiscence of the flesh tends against the order of reason. It remains therefore that the first inordinateness of the human appetite resulted from his coveting inordinately some spiritual good. Now he would not have coveted it inordinately, by desiring it according to his measure as established by the Divine rule. Hence it follows that man’s first sin consisted in his coveting some spiritual good above his measure: and this pertains to pride. Therefore it is evident that man’s first sin was pride.
 
evil, noun (Collins)

  1. *]anything morally bad or wrong; wickedness; depravity; sin
    *]anything that causes harm, pain, misery, disaster, etc.

    John 8:44 You are of your father the devil, and the desires of your father you will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and he stood not in the truth; because truth is not in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father thereof.

  1. I think you two are speaking of two different things.
    You are speaking about what evil IS.
    Rohzek wants to know where evil comes from. It can’t come from the devil. The devil embodies evil. He is a liar and a thief, he encourages us to do evil (The Screwtape Letters - very good) .

    So now we have satan. Okay. Why did he fall? Where did he get the pride you speak of in your last post?

    I go back even further in time than Rohzek. He feels A and E’s environment outside of the garden contributed to their concup. That means the outside world was imperfect and in a bad state of affairs. Even if we conceed that, where did all that evil come from?

    God bless
 
First, there is no sin nature per se.

My suggestion is to drop that designation and follow the Catholic teaching in *CCC *405 where there is a clear distinction between “sin nature” which is a totally corrupted nature and the reality of a wounded human nature.

Another problem floating around is the idea that "Man fell from his “perfect” state and whatever.
" Man’s “perfect” state is in the presence of the Beatific Vision. CCC Glossary, Beatific Vision, page 867

Personally, I think that problems occur is because the original relationship between humanity and Divinity is not examined according to Catholic doctrines such as Original Sin and the purpose of Genesis 1: 26-27 and Genesis 2: 15-17. Genesis 3: 9-11, is where serious sin, a break in the relationship between an individual and God, is mentioned.
Hello grannymh,

It sounds to me like you might be a fellow catechist or instructor of some type.

What’s going on here is not what it might seem Have you gone back and read all the posts?? Of course what you say is correct. But Charlemagne wanted to know what made Adam and Eve sin if there was no concup. before they sinned.

A legitimate question and one I’ve often wondered about myself. Now I’m an older person and have stopped worrying about this. However it is interesting to follow this thread and see what Vico, Fhasen and Rohzek come up with. You must admit that the conversation is very interesting!

I do find it interesting that you describe a difference between the sin nature and concupisence. Isn’t it just words? Protestants call it the sin nature. Or SIN instead of SINS. I have always found this definition very easy to understand and have used it when teaching. We catholics gave it the name concupisence. Concup. means the same thing; the disordered inclination toward sin. I don’t see any difference.

God bless
 
The Catholic teaching on culpability is that there must be knowledge of the sinful character of the act. Adam knew this, as we are told in Genesis 2:15 And the Lord God took man, and put him into the paradise for pleasure, to dress it, and keep it. 16 And he commanded him, saying: Of every tree of paradise thou shalt eat: 17 But of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat. for in what day soever thou shalt eat of it, thou shalt die the death.

St. Thomas Aquinas wrote something interesting on the first sin, in his Summa Theologica, II, II, Q163, A1.

Article 1. Whether pride was the first man’s first sin?I answer that, Many movements may concur towards one sin, and the character of sin attaches to that one in which inordinateness is first found. And it is evident that inordinateness is in the inward movement of the soul before being in the outward act of the body; since, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei i, 18), the sanctity of the body is not forfeited so long as the sanctity of the soul remains. Also, among the inward movements, the appetite is moved towards the end before being moved towards that which is desired for the sake of the end; and consequently man’s first sin was where it was possible for his appetite to be directed to an inordinate end. Now man was so appointed in the state of innocence, that there was no rebellion of the flesh against the spirit. Wherefore it was not possible for the first inordinateness in the human appetite to result from his coveting a sensible good, to which the concupiscence of the flesh tends against the order of reason. It remains therefore that the first inordinateness of the human appetite resulted from his coveting inordinately some spiritual good. Now he would not have coveted it inordinately, by desiring it according to his measure as established by the Divine rule. Hence it follows that man’s first sin consisted in his coveting some spiritual good above his measure: and this pertains to pride. Therefore it is evident that man’s first sin was pride.
And Aquinas refers to pride as inordinate self-love. So, where did inordinance come from in Adam in the first place?
 
The Catholic teaching on culpability is that there must be knowledge of the sinful character of the act. Adam knew this, as we are told in Genesis 2:
15 And the Lord God took man, and put him into the paradise for pleasure, to dress it, and keep it. 16 And he commanded him, saying: Of every tree of paradise thou shalt eat: 17 But of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat. for in what day soever thou shalt eat of it, thou shalt die the death.

Yes, he certainly had head knowledge, at least-including the knowledge that he would die. Do you think Adam, then, wanted to die?
 
I think you two are speaking of two different things.
You are speaking about what evil IS.
Rohzek wants to know where evil comes from. It can’t come from the devil. The devil embodies evil. He is a liar and a thief, he encourages us to do evil (The Screwtape Letters - very good) .

So now we have satan. Okay. Why did he fall? Where did he get the pride you speak of in your last post?

I go back even further in time than Rohzek. He feels A and E’s environment outside of the garden contributed to their concup. That means the outside world was imperfect and in a bad state of affairs. Even if we conceed that, where did all that evil come from?

God bless
God gave his creatures the angels and man, the capability of not loving Him. There can be no expression of love without this free choice. The first angel fell to pride and the other angels were influenced by that, and then Eve and Adam. St. Thomas discusses the first angelic sin:

Summa Theologica, I, Q63, (excerpts):*A2 - Whether only the sin of pride and envy can exist in an angel?

*But there can be no sin when anyone is incited to good of the spiritual order; unless in such affection the rule of the superior be not kept. Such is precisely the sin of pride–not to be subject to a superior when subjection is due. Consequently the first sin of the angel can be none other than pride. *

A3 -Whether the devil desired to be as God?

*It is said, in the person of the devil (Isaiah 14:13-14), “I will ascend into heaven . . . I will be like the Most High.” And Augustine (De Qu. Vet. Test. cxiii) says that being “inflated with pride, he wished to be called God.”
… he sought to have final beatitude of his own power, whereas this is proper to God alone.

Since, then, what exists of itself is the cause of what exists of another, it follows from this furthermore that he sought to have dominion over others; wherein he also perversely wished to be like unto God. *

A5 - Whether the devil was wicked by the fault of his own will in the first instant of his creation?*

It is written (Genesis 1:31): “God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good.” But among them were also the demons. Therefore the demons were at some time good.

A6 -Whether there was any interval between the creation and the fall of the angel?

I answer that, There is a twofold opinion on this point. But the more probable one, which is also more in harmony with the teachings of the Saints, is that the devil sinned at once after the first instant of his creation. This must be maintained if it be held that he elicited an act of free-will in the first instant of his creation, and that he was created in grace; as we have said (62, 3). For since the angels attain beatitude by one meritorious act, as was said above (Question 62, Article 5), if the devil, created in grace, merited in the first instant, he would at once have received beatitude after that first instant, if he had not placed an impediment by sinning.

If, however, it be contended that the angel was not created in grace, or that he could not elicit an act of free-will in the first instant, then there is nothing to prevent some interval being interposed between his creation and fall.

A7 -Whether the highest angel among those who sinned was the highest of all?

But if the motive for sinning be considered, we find that it existed in the higher angels more than in the lower. For, as has been said (2), the demons’ sin was pride; and the motive of pride is excellence, which was greater in the higher spirits. Hence Gregory says that he who sinned was the very highest of all. This seems to be the more probable view: because the angels’ sin did not come of any proneness, but of free choice alone. Consequently that argument seems to have the more weight which is drawn from the motive in sinning. Yet this must not be prejudicial to the other view; because there might be some motive for sinning in him also who was the chief of the lower angels.
 
And Aquinas refers to pride as inordinate self-love. So, where did inordinance come from in Adam in the first place?
You ask Vico the above.
I wish this wasn’t a rhetorical question.
I’ve been waiting for the answer for 40 years!

God bless
 
God gave his creatures the angels and man, the capability of not loving Him. There can be no expression of love without this free choice. The first angel fell to pride and the other angels were influenced by that, and then Eve and Adam. St. Thomas discusses the first angelic sin:

Summa Theologica, I, Q63, (excerpts):*A2 - Whether only the sin of pride and envy can exist in an angel?

*But there can be no sin when anyone is incited to good of the spiritual order; unless in such affection the rule of the superior be not kept. Such is precisely the sin of pride–not to be subject to a superior when subjection is due. Consequently the first sin of the angel can be none other than pride. *

A3 -Whether the devil desired to be as God?

*It is said, in the person of the devil (Isaiah 14:13-14), “I will ascend into heaven . . . I will be like the Most High.” And Augustine (De Qu. Vet. Test. cxiii) says that being “inflated with pride, he wished to be called God.”
… he sought to have final beatitude of his own power, whereas this is proper to God alone.

Since, then, what exists of itself is the cause of what exists of another, it follows from this furthermore that he sought to have dominion over others; wherein he also perversely wished to be like unto God. *

A5 - Whether the devil was wicked by the fault of his own will in the first instant of his creation?*

It is written (Genesis 1:31): “God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good.” But among them were also the demons. Therefore the demons were at some time good.

A6 -Whether there was any interval between the creation and the fall of the angel?

I answer that, There is a twofold opinion on this point. But the more probable one, which is also more in harmony with the teachings of the Saints, is that the devil sinned at once after the first instant of his creation. This must be maintained if it be held that he elicited an act of free-will in the first instant of his creation, and that he was created in grace; as we have said (62, 3). For since the angels attain beatitude by one meritorious act, as was said above (Question 62, Article 5), if the devil, created in grace, merited in the first instant, he would at once have received beatitude after that first instant, if he had not placed an impediment by sinning.

If, however, it be contended that the angel was not created in grace, or that he could not elicit an act of free-will in the first instant, then there is nothing to prevent some interval being interposed between his creation and fall.

A7 -Whether the highest angel among those who sinned was the highest of all?

But if the motive for sinning be considered, we find that it existed in the higher angels more than in the lower. For, as has been said (2), the demons’ sin was pride; and the motive of pride is excellence, which was greater in the higher spirits. Hence Gregory says that he who sinned was the very highest of all. This seems to be the more probable view: because the angels’ sin did not come of any proneness, but of free choice alone. Consequently that argument seems to have the more weight which is drawn from the motive in sinning. Yet this must not be prejudicial to the other view; because there might be some motive for sinning in him also who was the chief of the lower angels.
If the demons were at some time good, what made them become bad?

You see, you keep quoting explanations of why there’s evil in the world. I think we know this stuff. No need to ask Thomas about that.

What we here all want to know is where did that evil come from? Why did satan angel have pride? What put that pride in him? He wasn’t the devil yet.

There’s some basic misundersanding here. It’s not like I would actually expect you to answer the question Vico. It’s just that I’m wondering if you’ve ever really thought this out, and I don’t mean that in an insulting way. 🙂

God bless
 
You ask Vico the above.
I wish this wasn’t a rhetorical question.
I’ve been waiting for the answer for 40 years!

God bless
I believe its inherent in any being other than God. We’re all inordinate, to one degree or another, relative to Him. As such we cannot “operate” apart from Him, and yet He gives us the very choice to do so if we wish, or experiment with doing so as Prodigals who’ve left home and have the opportunity-the need- to learn that there’s no place like home, as Dorothy put it; home’s really an awesome place after all, in fact.

God saw fit, obviously, not to abandon Adam even as serious consequences of his sin did redound nonetheless. I tend to think that Adam’s limitations, however we want to characterize them, reduced his culpability to some extent, even as some seem to insist that this couldn’t be the case. Adam was seriously culpable. And yet Adam was also limited. In fact he could learn-and apparently needed to learn-in order to contribute in his own way to his perfection.
 
What we here all want to know is where did that evil come from? Why did satan angel have pride? What put that pride in him? He wasn’t the devil yet.

God bless
How would we ever know where it came from unless it was revealed to us?

Did it come from within? Was it revealed to him by the Father that his Son would reign as Christ the King and His son’s mother would reign as the Queen of Heaven; and so full of himself, Satan could not believe it and refused to bow to the will of the Father?

Then where evil comes from in Satan would be his own envy. He would rather be the enemy of Christ on Earth than the friend of Christ in Heaven.

Sheer unadulterated speculation, I’m sure! 😉
 
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