Orthodox Eucharist valid but illicit?

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Oh Good Lord, will the ride on this merry-go-round never end??? I suppose the only way that will happen is for all of us in the East/Orient (Orthodox or otherwise) to say “what the Latins say is truth and all else is bilge” … I need a bromo. :mad:
 
You wish that was the case.

No its a fact. Your opinion is the one that mystically is true yet has no explicit paper trail. I have quoted numerous saints and documents. You reference two paragraphs that speak about validity not licity. You mention one author who you aren’t even sure where he gets the support for his position other than a paragraph that speaks about sacramental validity rather than licity. Your position at its core is baseless and relies on strained extrapolation. Mine is found explicitly in the writings of the saints and Ecumenical Councils.
No, it’s not a fact. It is quite obvious that discipline with respect to sacraments has changed. Furthermore, mere reason and logic dictates that on the basis of current canon law, the CCC, and Unitatis Redintegratio, the Catholic Church does not consider Orthodox sacraments to be unlawful, even with the lack of the explicit use of the phrase “Orthodox sacraments are licit.”

I would add that three priests I have corresponded with about the issue, one of whom has a doctorate in liturgical studies from a pontifical institute in Rome, while a second one holds a licentiate in liturgical studies from a pontifical institute in Rome, have told me that the position that the Catholic Church currently hold Orthodox sacraments to be illicit is absurd.
 
No, it’s not a fact. It is quite obvious that discipline with respect to sacraments has changed. Furthermore, mere reason and logic dictates that on the basis of current canon law, the CCC, and Unitatis Redintegratio, the Catholic Church does not consider Orthodox sacraments to be unlawful, even with the lack of the explicit use of the phrase “Orthodox sacraments are licit.”
I’ll go you one better: show me where even the pre-conciliar RCC considered Orthodox sacraments illicit (or unlawful, same thing). 😉
 
In the 1983 Code of Canon Law the following is prescribed: Canon 844 (c.671 in the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches)

"It then addresses the question of Catholics receiving the sacraments from non-Catholics. It sets the following strict conditions:

a. necessity or genuine spiritual advantage
b. when the danger of error or indifferentism is avoided
c. it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister
d. a church which has valid sacraments

This last condition is the key one, since it eliminates ALL the Reformation churches (Anglican, Episcopalian, Presbyterian, Methodist, Baptist etc.), none of whom have valid sacred orders, and therefore, a invalid Eucharist.

The possibility of a Catholic receiving from the minister of another church, when the first three conditions are fulfilled, is limited to the Orthodox Churches, other Oriental Churches, Old Catholics, Polish National and others whose sacraments are recognized by the Holy See. As paragraph 3 notes, the members of those churches may likewise receive from a Catholic minister, when they ask and are disposed."

So this confirms their validity, no mention of licitness. Why would the Church then allow an “illicit” sacrament to be received? Perhaps the sacrament is “licit” BUT only when ALL four conditions above are met? 🤷

ewtn.com/expert/answers/intercommunion.htm
 
I’ll go you one better: show me where even the pre-conciliar RCC considered Orthodox sacraments illicit (or unlawful, same thing). 😉
Just making some observations, not speaking for anyone here,

It seems to me, in order to get to the heart of the matter, some questions and answers need to be clear in everyone’s mind…

    • If the Orthodox Eucharist is both valid and licit… then why is a Catholic not allowed to freely commune with the Orthodox in an Orthodox Church?
    • If such reception by a Catholic happens at all, why is such reception by a Catholic supposed to only happen WHEN danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided,? Who decides THAT and by what yardstick does one measure that with?
    • If the sacrament is valid and licit in the Orthodox Churches, why then is there any such danger of error and indifferentism to even worry about for a Catholic?
    For further examiination, here is the opening sentence to canon 844. Canon 844 is the canon usually quoted from, to support various positions that people take.

    (all emphasis mine)

    "Catholic ministers administer the sacraments **licitly **to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, **who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, "

    *When I see the words

    • **Catholic ministers administer licitly to Catholics alone, and Catholics receive licitly from Catholic ministers alone ,
      **
    • then in extension, I’m also thinking anything outside that parameter of administering and reception, from a Catholic minister is not licit… i.e. it is illicit even though the word illicit is not there

    Any disagreement in that observation?***

    ***Canon 844

    (all emphasis mine)

    Can. 844 §1. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments licitly to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, **who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, **without prejudice to the prescripts of §§2, 3, and 4 of this canon, and [ (http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG1104/_P2W.HTM#4.1.0.1.2.0.861) can. 861, §2.
    §2. Whenever necessity requires it or true spiritual advantage suggests it, and provided that danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided, the Christian faithful for whom it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister are *permitted to receive *the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick from non-Catholic ministers in whose Churches these sacraments are valid.
    §3. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick licitly to members of Eastern Churches which do not have full communion with the Catholic Church ***if they seek such on their own accord *and are properly disposed. This is also valid for members of other Churches which in the judgment of the Apostolic See are in the same condition in regard to the sacraments as these Eastern Churches.
    §4. If the danger of death is present or if, in the judgment of the diocesan bishop or conference of bishops, some other grave necessity urges it, Catholic ministers administer these same sacraments licitly also to other Christians not having full communion with the Catholic Church, who cannot approach a minister of their own community and who seek such on their own accord, provided that they manifest Catholic faith in respect to these sacraments and are properly disposed.
    §5. For the cases mentioned in §§2, 3, and 4, the diocesan bishop or conference of bishops is not to issue general norms except after consultation at least with the local competent authority of the interested non-Catholic Church or community.
 
If Orthodox sacraments are illicit, then why does the Catholic Church permit Catholics to participate in Orthodox sacraments at all, even in limited circumstances?

Participation in an illicit (unlawful) sacrament is objectively sinful. Since when does the Church grant permission for its members to participate in that which is objectively sinful?

There are four sacraments in which Catholics, under certain circumstances, may participate in the Orthodox Church, from the Catholic point of view: Eucharist, marriage, anointing of the sick, and confession. Other than confession in the case of danger of death, with which of these sacraments is participation by a Catholic in the Orthodox Church necessary for one’s salvation? I don’t see how reception by Catholics of the Eucharist or anointing of the sick, or being married in the Orthodox Church is necessary to the salvation of Catholics.
 
If Orthodox sacraments are illicit, then why does the Catholic Church permit Catholics to participate in Orthodox sacraments at all, even in limited circumstances?

Participation in an illicit (unlawful) sacrament is objectively sinful. Since when does the Church grant permission for its members to participate in that which is objectively sinful?

There are four sacraments in which Catholics, under certain circumstances, may participate in the Orthodox Church, from the Catholic point of view: Eucharist, marriage, anointing of the sick, and confession. Other than confession in the case of danger of death, with which of these sacraments is participation by a Catholic in the Orthodox Church necessary for one’s salvation? I don’t see how reception by Catholics of the Eucharist or anointing of the sick, or being married in the Orthodox Church is necessary to the salvation of Catholics.
I don’t know a single Catholic who was permitted to receive Communion at a Orthodox church once they made it known to the Priest prior to commencement that they were Catholic, myself included.

Perhaps others have had different experiences.

It could be that they have their criteria to fulfill before allowing it as we do. 🤷
 
If Orthodox sacraments are illicit, then why does the Catholic Church permit Catholics to participate in Orthodox sacraments at all, even in limited circumstances?
Yet it could also be asked another way, if the Orthodox sacraments are valid and licit for a Catholic to receive, why are there still restrictions and exceptions of any kind on Catholics receiving from an Orthodox priest anytime, anywhere?

Would you agree, that once the issue of validity is answered, then the issue remaining is what is and what is NOT licit?
 
I don’t know a single Catholic who was permitted to receive Communion at a Orthodox church once they made it known to the Priest prior to commencement that they were Catholic, myself included.

Perhaps others have had different experiences.

It could be that they have their criteria to fulfill before allowing it as we do. 🤷
Well, yes, some others have had different experiences, especially in certain parts of the world, but whether or not the Orthodox permit Catholics to receive Communion is an entirely different question from that of whether or not the Catholic Church deems Orthodox sacraments to be licit.
 
Yet it could also be asked another way, if the Orthodox sacraments are valid and licit for a Catholic to receive, why are there still restrictions and exceptions of any kind on Catholics receiving from an Orthodox priest anytime, anywhere?

Would you agree, that once the issue of validity is answered, then the issue remaining is what is and what is NOT licit?
Yes, it certainly could be asked that way, and in fact, I consider the questions you have raised to be entirely reasonable questions. My guess is that there are restrictions for at least two reasons. One reason could be the fact that the Catholic Church teaches that we are in a state of imperfect communion with the Orthodox Churches. To remove all restrictions would suggest a degree of perfect communion which does not currently exist. Another reason could be sensitivity to the fact that the circumstances in which the Orthodox permit Catholics to receive sacraments are quite limited.
 
Well, yes, some others have had different experiences, especially in certain parts of the world, but whether or not the Orthodox permit Catholics to receive Communion is an entirely different question from that of whether or not the Catholic Church deems Orthodox sacraments to be licit.
Refer post #128
 
Oh Good Lord, will the ride on this merry-go-round never end???
Thank you for saying that! I’ve been strongly thinking about going silent vis-a-vis this thread. (Maybe first I’ll just cite what I said before, for anyone who missed it:
I have to agree, Elizium. Neither of the answers makes sense, because the question doesn’t make sense.

We have two very active threads essentially asking Catholics whether an Orthodox priest licitly celebrates the Eucharist … which is like if I did something and then called up the government of New Zealand to ask whether it was legal.
.) Now if you’ll excuse me, I’ve got long-distance calls to make – I want to hear how people in New Zealand react when I inform them that something they’ve done has been deemed illegal by the United States of America. 🙂
 
No it makes sense because according to sacramental theology, the sacraments were given by Christ to the Church…
You seem to be confusing the Church with either the Church of Rome or the Pope. As BXVI said, the Orthodox are Churches in the fullest sense of the word, with apostolic succession and valid sacraments.

The licitude or not of the sacraments in the Orthodox Churches only applies to the conditions when a Catholic may licitly receive them, not in and of themselves or to the Orthodox faithful.

Christus natus est!
 
You seem to be confusing the Church with either the Church of Rome or the Pope. As BXVI said, the Orthodox are Churches in the fullest sense of the word, with apostolic succession and valid sacraments.

The licitude or not of the sacraments in the Orthodox Churches only applies to the conditions when a Catholic may licitly receive them, not in and of themselves or to the Orthodox faithful.

Christus natus est!
👍
 
We are not both Churches founded by Christ and separated from one another - the Eastern Orthodox churches broke away from the Church and therefore were founded by men and not God.
How come then that, when a group of one of those churches founded by men decides to enter into communion with the Church of Rome, their bishops and priests are not reordained, but their original ordinations are accepted as equally sacramental to any bishop and priest in the Catholic Church?

Christus natus est!
 
Just making some observations, not speaking for anyone here,

It seems to me, in order to get to the heart of the matter, some questions and answers need to be clear in everyone’s mind…
Code:
If the Orthodox Eucharist is both valid and licit.... then why is a Catholic not allowed to freely commune with the Orthodox in an Orthodox Church?
Because there is not full communion between the Catholic Church and the Churches of the Orthodox Communion (and the other Churches judged by Rome to be in the same situation as the Orthodox). There is, however, a true and undoubted communicatio in sacris, if imperfect, and the Holy See makes provisions under what circumstances the sacraments that a Catholic minister celebrates may be shared with those who are not part of her visible structure. Similarly, the Holy See articulates when Catholics may receive the specific sacraments mentioned in this canon from Orthodox ministers or those judged equivalent for purposes of this canon.
If such reception by a Catholic happens at all, why is such reception by a Catholic supposed to only happen WHEN danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided,? Who decides THAT and by what yardstick does one measure that with?
**The reception does happen. This is a permission, written in law, given to Catholics – who are the proper subjects of Canon Law – for circumstances where it may be useful. There were Orthodox ministers who were most gracious during the persecutions in Eastern Europe that marked 20th century…and on our side to Orthodox faithful. There were many beautiful stories that reached Rome after the fall of the iron curtain in the aftermath of 1989 in this regard. I have always hoped they were adequately preserved in the annals of history since they were transmitted orally by those who lived it and many have gone to God.

This provision in Canon Law addresses Catholics…the Orthodox have thereby no corresponding reciprocal obligation to do something for a Catholic simply because Catholic Canon Law allows a Catholic to approach an Orthodox minister of a sacrament in a moment of need. The norms of the Orthodox governing their ministers actions are operative there and not ours. Similarly, when our Canon Law makes provision to administer sacraments to the Orthodox who spontaneously seek them of their own accord, we specify that they should observe the edicts of their hierarchs, even as it is our canon law which governs the decisions and actions of our sacramental ministers.

The admonition that indifferentism and error is to be avoided means, succinctly, that the person receiving (this applies to Catholic and Orthodox) must understand that what they are doing is exceptional and not normative…that there are real distinctions between being Catholic and being Orthodox and that one actually is either one or the other – even though each truly have the seven sacraments as really as the other. One cannot receive from one and from the other as though the person receiving actually belonged to both or to neither.

Those who have the cura animarum are to see that this canon is observed according to its intent relative to the faithful under their care when it is a Catholic under his care seeking the sacraments from the Orthodox or through his judgment of the circumstance when it is an Orthodox communicant seeking one or more sacraments from him. The determination is really not that difficult, practically speaking.
**
If the sacrament is valid and licit in the Orthodox Churches, why then is there any such danger of error and indifferentism to even worry about for a Catholic?
Because an individual layperson is either Catholic or Orthodox. They belong to one or the other. They cannot be indifferent as though there is no distinction between the two – even though circumstances and necessities may require receiving the sacraments from a minister with whom one is not in full communion but who nevertheless really and truly confects the sacrament.
For further examiination, here is the opening sentence to canon 844. Canon 844 is the canon usually quoted from, to support various positions that people take.
(all emphasis mine)
"Catholic ministers administer the sacraments licitly to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, "
When I see the words
Code:
Catholic ministers administer licitly to Catholics alone, and Catholics receive licitly from Catholic ministers alone ,
then in extension, I'm also thinking anything outside that parameter of administering and reception, from a Catholic minister is not licit.... i.e. it is illicit even though the word illicit is not there
Any disagreement in that observation?
Liceity in this canon governs the actions of the Catholic minister who is acting in administering the sacraments as well as the Catholic party who is receiving from an Orthodox minister. It allows the Catholic minister to administer to an Orthodox Christian (or one equivalent by determination of the Holy See). One cannot extrapolate the points beyond that which you are endeavouring to educe. The canon states what is normal: Catholic ministers administer the sacraments to Catholic faithful. Catholic faithful receive the sacraments from Catholic ministers. The legislator then delineates when that norm can be deviated. The legislator is not saying this is the limit of liceity regarding the administration of the sacraments, as they exist in toto.
 
You seem to be confusing the Church with either the Church of Rome or the Pope. As BXVI said, the Orthodox are Churches in the fullest sense of the word, with apostolic succession and valid sacraments.
No the Church is all those within the fold lf churches in communion with Rome. These particular churches make up the Catholic Church of the creed.

The reference to them as “true churches” is testament to their try status as a church per definition rather than ecclesial communities which are only called churches in name. It is not a testament to them being part of the Catholic Church, that is, the Church of Christ. You are teaching branch theory, a heresy condemned at Vatican I.
The licitude or not of the sacraments in the Orthodox Churches only applies to the conditions when a Catholic may licitly receive them, not in and of themselves or to the Orthodox faithful.
Christus natus est!
No and this is unsurprisingly wrong and shows you don’t really comprehend the concept of licitness. Licitness of a sacrament concerns the legal administration of the sacraments. Outside the Church no sacraments are objectively licit/legal. Sacraments belong to the Church and outside her there are done illegaly without the permission of the Church. The church has taught numerous times on this. Learn your church history more and read the doctors and councils. Nevermind that efficacy of sacraments is generally what is concerned with the canons teaching upon when an Catholic approaches the sacraments of a schismatic.

Ecumenical Council of Florence

"The most Holy Roman Church] firmly believes, professes, and proclaims that those not living within the Catholic Church, not only pagans, but also Jews and heretics and schismatics cannot become participants in eternal life, but will depart `into everlasting fire which was prepared for the devil and his angels’ (Matt. 25:41), unless before the end of life the same have been added to the flock; and that the unity of the ecclesiastical body is so strong that only to those remaining in it are the sacraments of the Church of benefit for salvation, and do fastings, almsgiving, and other functions of piety and exercises of Christian service produce eternal reward, and that no one, whatever almsgiving he has practiced, even if he has shed blood for the name of Christ, can be saved, unless he has remained in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church.”
 
How come then that, when a group of one of those churches founded by men decides to enter into communion with the Church of Rome, their bishops and priests are not reordained, but their original ordinations are accepted as equally sacramental to any bishop and priest in the Catholic Church?

Christus natus est!
That’s called apostolic succession. Even some heretics have apostolic succession. That is only a testament to them at once being part of the church of Christ but once they left, they became a church of men for Christ only has one Church, not many.

Pope Pius IX

“None [of these religious societies differing among themselves and separated from the Catholic Church], not even taken as a whole, constitutes in any way and are not that one, Catholic Church founded and made by Our Lord and which He wished to create. Further, one cannot say in any way that these societies are either members or parts of that same Church, because they are visibly separated from Catholic Unity.”

Pope Leo XIII

"Jesus Christ never conceived of nor instituted a Church formed of many communities which were brought together by certain general traits - but which would be distinct one from another and not bound together among themselves by ties which make the Church one and indivisible - since we clearly profess in the Creed of our Faith: " ‘I believe in one…Church.’ "

Pope Pius XI

“It is absurd and ridiculous to say that the Mystical Body can be formed out of separated and disjunct members.”

Pope Pius XI

“It is to depart from divine truth to imagine a Church which one can neither see nor touch, which would be nothing more than spiritual in which numerous Christian communities would be united by an invisible bond, even though they are divided in faith.”
 
Yes neither did I deny this. Yet sacramental theology is irreformable. Sacramental theology is what governs the discipline.

Nevermind the fact that the discipline has not changed.
Both the theology and the discipline of sacraments assuredly changes as the Church passes from one epoch to another. The faith of the Apostolic and Sub-apostolic era will find a more precise theological articulation through the Church Fathers of East and West. The faith of the Patristic era, in turn, will find fuller expression in the theology of the Scholastic era. It is no less true today both in sacramental theology and in the discipline of the sacraments.
 
No, it’s not a fact. It is quite obvious that discipline with respect to sacraments has changed. Furthermore, mere reason and logic dictates that on the basis of current canon law, the CCC, and Unitatis Redintegratio, the Catholic Church does not consider Orthodox sacraments to be unlawful, even with the lack of the explicit use of the phrase “Orthodox sacraments are licit.”

I would add that three priests I have corresponded with about the issue, one of whom has a doctorate in liturgical studies from a pontifical institute in Rome, while a second one holds a licentiate in liturgical studies from a pontifical institute in Rome, have told me that the position that the Catholic Church currently hold Orthodox sacraments to be illicit is absurd.
You have said things quite well in your posts, Ryan Black.

Absurd is an apt word from your correspondents. It is not just the theologians of the pontifical athenea who hold the position you cite; any other would be also opposed to the thought that prevails in the Holy See with those who are charged with relations with the Orthodox. I would be very interested to know, specifically, which theologian of the 21st century would hold such a contrary position.
 
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