In the 1983 Code of Canon Law the following is prescribed: Canon 844 (c.671 in the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches)
"It then addresses the question of Catholics receiving the sacraments from non-Catholics. It sets the following strict conditions:
a. necessity or genuine spiritual advantage
b. when the danger of error or indifferentism is avoided
c. it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister
d. a church which has valid sacraments
This last condition is the key one, since it eliminates ALL the Reformation churches (Anglican, Episcopalian, Presbyterian, Methodist, Baptist etc.), none of whom have valid sacred orders, and therefore, a invalid Eucharist.
The possibility of a Catholic receiving from the minister of another church, when the first three conditions are fulfilled, is limited to the Orthodox Churches, other Oriental Churches, Old Catholics, Polish National and others whose sacraments are recognized by the Holy See. As paragraph 3 notes, the members of those churches may likewise receive from a Catholic minister, when they ask and are disposed."
So this confirms their validity, no mention of licitness. Why would the Church then allow an “illicit” sacrament to be received? Perhaps the sacrament is “licit” BUT only when ALL four conditions above are met?
ewtn.com/expert/answers/intercommunion.htm